Each time I did this with a different approach, I got a different
number; but they were all in the same range, around 10000.
I used the 9/6 JoB paytable and changed the Royal Flush pay to 8000;
predefined the cards KQJ9 and went through a few hands before I had a
KQJ9,4. Then went to the "Details" (on WinPoker) or "Perfect Hand
Statistics" on FVP. The two programs work differently in this situation
(on how you get there), but both showed identical (has to be expected)
tables for the possible outcomes with KQJ9 or KQJ hold.
Seeing the ExpReturn to be higher for KQJ9, I kept increasing the RF
payout, and at 10000, things reversed. Then I started backing off a bit
to find the perfect transition point. It was 9950. This was a laborious
process.
But I already had 9950 with a different, simple, straight forward
method.
If you look at the possible paying hands for the two holds (independent
of the RF payout), it is as follows:
Hold Hands Junk JoB 2-Pair 3Kind Straight Flush StFlush RF
KQJ9 47 26 9 0 0 3 8 1 0
KQJ 1081 634 348 27 9 27 35 0 1
Plugging this information in Excel, along with the 9/6 payoffs for each
outcome, it was very simple to come out with the magic number 9950.
I thank you for asking the question. I saved the screenshot with all
these calculations, showing the numbers from WinPoker, FVP, and Excel.
I am going to try post it in the files section (I am not sure if I need
the temporary permission to do that, as per a recent post from the
administrator), I'll leave it for a week and then delete it.
Take a look at the details provided there, and tell me if I am doing
something wrong. At this point it is purely academic, but I'd like to
know the reason for the different answers.
If I need permission to post the file, it might take a little bit of
time. Otherwise, you should see it there now.
···
--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "murphyfields" <jkludge@...> wrote:
Strange...using FVP I get a breakpoint of 11040. What did you use for
a 5th card, and what paytable did you use?