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...and you thought 8/5 JOB was a bad game!

From a local news article about taxes on Louisiana "truck stop" video
poker machines:

"From July 1, 2002, to June 30, 2003 – the past state fiscal year –
about $114 million was wagered in video-poker machines in Terrebonne
Parish, state records show. That's up 34 percent from the $85 million
recorded during 2000.
Bettors took home $73.8 million of the video-poker money in winnings
during the 2002-03 fiscal year.
That left more than $40 million in proceeds, split by the owners of
the games and the businesses that house them, as well as state and
local governments."

Assuming these numbers reflect coin in and coin out amounts, that
means that these machines returned an average of about 65%???
Since these state-franchised machines typically have pay tables that
return around 90% with perfect play, the 65% figure appears to me to
be unrealistically bad, although I would agree that anyone who would
play one of these machines in the first place would not likely know
about the finer points of VP, such as the concept of "strategy".
Either the numbers published above represent something different,
such as a hold percentage (i.e. bills fed to machine vs. vouchers
cashed out), or else south Louisiana has the worst VP players in the
world :wink:

EE

From a local news article about taxes on Louisiana "truck stop"

video

poker machines:

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
"From July 1, 2002, to June 30, 2003 – the past state fiscal

year –

about $114 million was wagered in video-poker machines in

Terrebonne

Parish, state records show. That's up 34 percent from the $85

million

recorded during 2000.
Bettors took home $73.8 million of the video-poker money in

winnings

during the 2002-03 fiscal year.
That left more than $40 million in proceeds, split by the owners of
the games and the businesses that house them, as well as state and
local governments."
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

Assuming these numbers reflect coin in and coin out amounts, that
means that these machines returned an average of about 65%???
Since these state-franchised machines typically have pay tables

that

return around 90% with perfect play, the 65% figure appears to me

to

be unrealistically bad, although I would agree that anyone who

would

play one of these machines in the first place would not likely know
about the finer points of VP, such as the concept of "strategy".
Either the numbers published above represent something different,
such as a hold percentage (i.e. bills fed to machine vs. vouchers
cashed out), or else south Louisiana has the worst VP players in

the

world :wink:

EE

A tech at the Indian Casino I play at said that the VP machines have
a 1.5%hold on them. He also said that machine is not programmed to
determine certain hands. How can you have a hold built into a machine
without determining certain outcomes. This doesn't make sense.
Can you explain what a hold is and how it works on a VP machine?

The hold has nothing to do with the paytable. Most are much more than
the 1.5% he talked about

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "eecounter" <eecounter@h...> wrote:

The 8/5 JOB story was snipped

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "tghysel" <tghysel@y...> wrote:
"A tech at the Indian Casino I play at said that the VP machines
have a 1.5%hold on them. He also said that machine is not programmed
to determine certain hands. How can you have a hold built into a
machine without determining certain outcomes. This doesn't make
sense. Can you explain what a hold is and how it works on a VP
machine?"

It does make sense. The hold on a video poker game is determined by
two elements: the pay-table and the strategy used. The general rule
is playing less than max coins usually result in a greater hold
given the fact a "bonus" is typically given on a RF with max coins
wagered. The strategy used also has a lot to do with the hold. The
machine deals cards randomly, and it is up to the player, through
the use of his or her strategy, to determine the outcome. On a
typical 5-card draw video poker game, the player is faced with 32
possible decision choices, and the majority of these choices are sub-
optimal, which contribute to the hold.

If the machine was programmed to determine certain outcomes, then
you DO NOT want to play that machine because strategy will have very
little to do with the pre-determined outcomes. Strategy is built on
the assumption the game deals the cards randomly.

The 8/5 JOB story was snipped

"A tech at the Indian Casino I play at said that the VP machines
have a 1.5%hold on them. He also said that machine is not

programmed

to determine certain hands. How can you have a hold built into a
machine without determining certain outcomes. This doesn't make
sense. Can you explain what a hold is and how it works on a VP
machine?"

It does make sense. The hold on a video poker game is determined by
two elements: the pay-table and the strategy used. The general

rule

is playing less than max coins usually result in a greater hold
given the fact a "bonus" is typically given on a RF with max coins
wagered. The strategy used also has a lot to do with the hold.

The

machine deals cards randomly, and it is up to the player, through
the use of his or her strategy, to determine the outcome. On a
typical 5-card draw video poker game, the player is faced with 32
possible decision choices, and the majority of these choices are

sub-

optimal, which contribute to the hold.

If the machine was programmed to determine certain outcomes, then
you DO NOT want to play that machine because strategy will have

very

little to do with the pre-determined outcomes. Strategy is built

on

the assumption the game deals the cards randomly.

The best game in the place is 7/5 BP. All the rest are even lower
(8/5 JOB, 9/6/4 DB and Deuces wild at 95%). The hold would have to be
something more than the pay-table since all these games are below
1.5% even with perfect play and max coins.
These machines are in NY State. I believe these machines were
programmed like slot machines when they arrived from IGT. I don't
think we have rules governing VP in this state.

One of the posters mentioned a "hold" on VP machines. I want to know
what that is.
Thanks

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "fordscks" <jason_c_vp@y...> wrote:

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "tghysel" <tghysel@y...> wrote:

"One of the posters mentioned a "hold" on VP machines. I want to
know what that is."

Check out the link:

http://catlin.casinocitytimes.com/articles/1230.html

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "tghysel" <tghysel@y...> wrote:

fordscks wrote:

"One of the posters mentioned a "hold" on VP machines. I want to
know what that is."

Check out the link:
> http://catlin.casinocitytimes.com/articles/1230.html

Ask a simple question, get a ... :wink:
Be assured, I'm being fully facetious and only in a friendly manner.

"fordscks" has linked to an article that explains that the calculation
of the expected hold at casino tables for a given player is no simple
matter.

However, an earlier article by the author provided a very basic
definition of how a casino calculates it's actual hold for a game:

Total chips held at the tables / Total chips purchased

In other words, for a given player if they purchase $500 of chips
during their play and cash in $400 (having lost $100), the casino hold
is 20%.

···

------------

I want to discuss in more detail the intracies of this calculation as
it pertains to table games since that's the focus of the article (...
if you will, provide a bit of a bridge since the article addressed
this at a relatively advanced level). What would appear to be a very
basic concept at the outset becomes rather complex when extended
theoretically (as is clear from the article).

However, the question posed by "tghysel" (twice, in fact, in separate
posts) was focussed on machines rather than table games.

There are two definitions that actually come into play:

The first is the more stringent one and is analogous to the table
calculation above:

--> Total cash,coin,tokens,tickets held at the machines / total
tokens,tickets inserted

The second is much simpler and frequently is what is referenced is
very common discussion:

--> 1 - (Total Player Coin Out / Total Coin In)

The first equation meets the technical definition. If a player's
total insertions into the machines during their visit is $1000 and
total cashout is $600 (leaving $400 behind at the casino), then the
hold is $200/$1000 = 40%.

But obviously in the course of their play, that $1000 buy-in is
extended to a much larger total coin in (where the total wager of each
play is added to coin in) ... let's say $10000. Having ended play
with a $400 loss, their coin out will be $9600.

Under the second defintion, "machine hold" will be equal to:
1 - (9600 / 10000) = 4%.

The difference between these two definitions explains the disparity
referenced earlier in this thread. It was cited that an article
provided numbers for Louisiana "truck stop" machines that translated
to a 65% hold.

"EEcounter" flagged this as questionable, noting that his
understanding was that these machines typically had around a 10% hold.

The explanation is that the two separate definitions above are at work.

I'll note additionally that very often a specific game is noted as
having a given theoretical hold with perfect play. That definition is
consistent with the second one above and is based on expected coin-out
and coin-in for a player applying optimal ER, error-free strategy.

----------

Ok, back to the tables and the article linked above. (And if all you
were looking for was the slot hold definitions above you may prefer
not to read further.)

The first thing to recognize is that a player has direct influence on
the result. In the table example above, if the player had instead
purchased $1000 in chips and redeemed $900, the casino hold would only
be 10% instead of 20% -- even if the player spent the exact same
amount of time at the tables and made the exact same bets as in the
first instance.

That would suggest that this is a somewhat garbage statistic. But
from the casino's perspective it's a readily calculated simple
statistic that gives them a decent idea of how their performing one
day to the next.

In part, for example, it's a measure that indicates whether players
tend to be drawn to games more favorable to the casino than less.
More importantly, it's a strong indication of the extent to which
players find it attractive to remain at the tables for an extended
period of time relative to what they're willing to risk.

It might seem that the arbitariness of the statistic noted above would
weaken the use in these cases. However, there appears to be a
reasonably strong correlation between the maximum a player is willing
to risk and the total chips they buy in for play. To the extent that
that relationship is reliable, the statistic then becomes a decent
indication of just how much the casino has successfully induced them
to actually risk in play the full amount they're prepared to risk at
most. And, bottom line, once a casino has pulled a player in the door
this is what the game's all about.

------------

Ok, so about the somewhat technical article linked above:

I've discussed how one would calculation an actual hold after the
fact. However, if you're gonna get sophisticated, you might want to
consider what a specific game presents in terms of expected hold (or
theoretical hold) in advance of play.

Well, unlike a discussion of player expected return vs. actual return
for slots, this is a whole different (and more complicated) ball of
wax ... as evidenced by the overall tone of this article. However, if
you're intrigued by the more theoretical aspect of the subject it's an
absolutely fascinating article.

- Harry

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Harry Porter" <harry.porter@v...>

Ask a simple question, get a ... :wink:
Be assured, I'm being fully facetious and only in a friendly

manner.

No Harry. People don't believe you when you say are not being
facetious (or sardonic). We know better.

I posted the article because it was clear, at least to me, the
individual wanted more than a simple definition of "hold". He had
an inquisitive mind based on his two prior posts, and I thought a
good detailed article might solve some of his unasked questions.

Harry, please do everyone here a favor and get over your posts about
ROR. We've already moved on.

Cheers.

Harry Porter wrote:

snipped link and other comments re how a casino's "hold" is calculated

... an earlier article by the author provided a very basic
definition of how a casino calculates it's actual hold for a game:

Total chips held at the tables / Total chips purchased

In other words, for a given player if they purchase $500 of chips
during their play and cash in $400 (having lost $100), the casino hold
is 20%.

snip

There are two definitions that actually come into play:

The first is the more stringent one and is analogous to the table
calculation above:

--> Total cash,coin,tokens,tickets held at the machines / total
tokens,tickets inserted

The second is much simpler and frequently is what is referenced is
very common discussion:

--> 1 - (Total Player Coin Out / Total Coin In)

The first equation meets the technical definition. If a player's
total insertions into the machines during their visit is $1000 and
total cashout is $600 (leaving $400 behind at the casino), then the
hold is $200/$1000 = 40%.

But obviously in the course of their play, that $1000 buy-in is
extended to a much larger total coin in (where the total wager of each
play is added to coin in) ... let's say $10000. Having ended play
with a $400 loss, their coin out will be $9600.

Under the second defintion, "machine hold" will be equal to:
1 - (9600 / 10000) = 4%.

The difference between these two definitions explains the disparity
referenced earlier in this thread. It was cited that an article
provided numbers for Louisiana "truck stop" machines that translated
to a 65% hold.

"EEcounter" flagged this as questionable, noting that his
understanding was that these machines typically had around a 10% hold.

The explanation is that the two separate definitions above are at work.

snip

That was my gut reaction as soon as I read the 'truck stop' post; however, I'm having a hard time grasping how the casino or anyone else would be able to determine this figure other than by coin-in vs. coin-out, or slot-club records, or by a mere estimate, which might or might not be very accurate. If anyone can come up with another source, please post it; meanwhile, let's look at the three methods I've mentioned, although I'll cover 'coin-in vs. coin-out' last because I have the greatest concerns with it:

1.) slot-club records -- from which the casino can determine how much of a player's money was played versus how much winnings were re-played; however, this figure is not completely accurate because not all player's use slot-club cards all the time, and I especially doubt that truck stops have such a thing, or that truck drivers just passing through would necessarily bother with getting one; does anyone know if the machines in truck stops even have a card 'slot'? If not, then this completely eliminates what might have been the most reliable source of data that could have been used. And the problem is that without such reliable data, we have no idea where the "... $114 million was wagered ..."-figure comes from, or what "wagered" means. Does "wagered" include re-played winnings from the machine (simply coin-in), or is it just session stakes (what gamblers brought into the truck stops with them)? For sake of illustration, let me proportionately reduce the figures from the original post; let $114 million = $114.00 "wagered" by a single player, and let the $73.8 million in winnings be $73.80 the player had remaining when he left the casino. The player is playing 20 nickels = full coin (a dollar bet per game). If the $114.00 was total coin-in at the end of the session, and $73.80 was coin-out, meaning that only 114 games were played, then the player did, indeed, have an AR of only 65%. But if, on the other hand, the player put $114.00 into the machine, played 10,000 hands (equal to a coin-in of $10,000), and then cashed out with $73.80, then his loss was only $40.20 on $10,000 of play, and so his AR was really 99.58%. Well, the figure keeps changing; if he put $114.00 in, played only 5,000 games, and still cashed out with $73.80, then he lost $40.20 on just $5,000 of play, and his AR was only 99.16%. If he only got to play 1,000 games, his $40.20 loss on just $1,000 of play was an AR of just 95.88%. If he played 250 games, his $40.20 loss yields a pitiful AR of 83.92%. More importantly, since AR depends upon how much replay a gambler gets, how do the truck stops know what that figure is _IF_ then don't happen to have a slot-club card of some sort to track it? How would the machine know if the quarter being inserted into the machine comes from my last winning hand or from a brand new player? If can't and doesn't, and as can be seen from above, the shorter the sessions become, i.e., the fewer the games played in proportion to the money lost (which might be likely for truck stops), the lower the AR.

2.) an estimate -- which could be way off, especially when we wonder what info it is based upon, and who made the estimate. Was it a reporter who doesn't know anything about math or gambling? Was it some public interest group that is trying to expose the evil of VP machines in order to have them banned? Without further info, I don't know that I want to trust an "estimate" too much, and if we happen to not have 'slot-club records', then that pretty much brings us back to 'coin-in vs. coin-out'.

3.) coin-in vs. coin-out -- this is the figure that all of us are familiar with, but as Harry pointed out, it _should_ (based on all of our sensibilities and experiences) reflect a much more conservative figure, and so the 65% _just_doesn't_seem_right_ by this method; i.e., coin-out divided by coin-in equals the actual return of the machine, and so 65% was approximately the percentage of ACTUAL return reported in the original post. I think we can all agree that $114 million pays for enough games to represent long-term play, and that a 65% AR (actual return) on machines with a _supposed_ ER (expected return) of about 90% is more than a statistical anomaly or likely to be explained merely by pathetically poor play with complete lack of strategy. It would be interesting to see what sort of AR a monkey would get just randomly hitting buttons on machines that have an ER of 90% - and this is not to suggest in the least that truck drivers are no more skillful, but just that monkeys would at least give us a bottom line below which we could very reasonably begin to suspect that the machines are rigged. I could work up some math on monkeys, but I don't want to waste my time speculating without at least some idea of what sort of paytables the truck stops have; does anyone here know? Just for the hell of it, I ran this JoB paytable -- 1,1,2,3,4,5,10,20,200 -- through WinPoker and it analyzed it as having an ER of just 66% (perfect strategy), so obviously it is quite possible to create VP which will result in a 65% return, or even lower; the question remains whether anyone would ever play such a game, but folks who don't know squat about VP might actually do so.

Now, the problem with concluding that a 65% return (when that figure is determined by coin-in vs. coin-out) _MUST_ be wrong simply because it is too low for us to imagine, is that it assumes that the machines are honest, and it also assumes that the aforementioned _presumed_ 90% ER is accurate. But I have to wonder, with the government being a player (receiving a cut of the profits as taxes), whether the ER is necessarily as high as the aforementioned 90%. To begin with, states have no qualms about using lotteries which have deplorable returns of only about 50%, so unless someone can show me a written state law that requires the VP in truck stops to pay at least 90%, I'm inclined to suspect that the machines really do have a horribly low ER, and possibly as low as 65 or 70%. Second, does anyone know how closely Louisiana gaming control monitors truck stops? It sounds like there are lots of them, and gaming control could be turning a blind eye for any number of reasons, such as being under-staffed, bribed, threatened, lazy, indifferent, or whatever. I'm not stating that the latter is true, but why should we _assume_ that it is not?

I know that this has been a long post, but once I got into it ... well ... I just hope that someone finds it helpful or interesting.

Cheers.

Bill Velek

fordscks replied to:

> Ask a simple question, get a ... :wink:
> Be assured, I'm being fully facetious and only in a friendly
> manner.

with:

No Harry. People don't believe you when you say are not being
facetious (or sardonic). We know better.

My apologies for the offense. Clearly both comments could have been
omitted without detracting from the balance of my post. But I'm
honest in immedidately qualifying my comment, desiring to avoid any
misunderstanding.

By the way, I realize in retrospect all too well that it could be
taken that the completion intended here was "stupid answer", even if
the phrasing that goes with that would have been "Ask a stupid
question". The completion I specifically had in mind was "complex
question". But it was foolish to unthinkingly even allow for the
possibility that a sarcastic reply might be assumed here.

I'll only say that it was my impression that the original poster was
looking for a straightforward definition (as in a simple formula).
The article posted in reply, while excellent in nature, was likely far
more technical than the poster was looking for and was difficult for
most, including myself without several read throughs, to digest.

Admittedly, my impression of what the original poster was looking for
may have been off base.

That said, the purpose of my post was two-fold:

-- To provide the basic definition of "hold" for a vp/slot machine
(and, at the same time, resolve the discrepancy posed by a cited
article noting a case of a 65% hold figure vs. the expected 10% one
noted by someone in a separate post).

-- To provide a little background to the article, and detail the
relevance of "hold" to the casino - despite the fact that player
behavior can drastically alter the hold value of his play simply as a
consequence of his buy in size, without changing his play in any way.

Harry

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Harry Porter" <harry.porter@v...>
wrote:

fordscks replied to:

> > Ask a simple question, get a ... :wink:
> > Be assured, I'm being fully facetious and only in a friendly
> > manner.

with:
> No Harry. People don't believe you when you say are not being
> facetious (or sardonic). We know better.

My apologies for the offense. Clearly both comments could have been
omitted without detracting from the balance of my post. But I'm
honest in immedidately qualifying my comment, desiring to avoid any
misunderstanding.

By the way, I realize in retrospect all too well that it could be
taken that the completion intended here was "stupid answer", even if
the phrasing that goes with that would have been "Ask a stupid
question". The completion I specifically had in mind was "complex
question". But it was foolish to unthinkingly even allow for the
possibility that a sarcastic reply might be assumed here.

I'll only say that it was my impression that the original poster was
looking for a straightforward definition (as in a simple formula).
The article posted in reply, while excellent in nature, was likely

far

more technical than the poster was looking for and was difficult for
most, including myself without several read throughs, to digest.

Admittedly, my impression of what the original poster was looking

for

may have been off base.

That said, the purpose of my post was two-fold:

-- To provide the basic definition of "hold" for a vp/slot machine
(and, at the same time, resolve the discrepancy posed by a cited
article noting a case of a 65% hold figure vs. the expected 10% one
noted by someone in a separate post).

-- To provide a little background to the article, and detail the
relevance of "hold" to the casino - despite the fact that player
behavior can drastically alter the hold value of his play simply as

a

consequence of his buy in size, without changing his play in any

way.

Harry

I posted the second time before seeing the link to the article.That
happens when you're staring at a computer screen at 1AM..
Thank you both for the replies.

(snip)

Bill, let me see if I can answer at least some of your questions.
Note that my knowledge of these machines is based only on my reading
of the state regulations regarding same and various brief
observations of other people playing these games. Personally, I
wouldn't let my own money come anywhere near one of these machines.

1.) slot-club records -- (snip) and I especially doubt that

truck stops have such a thing, or that truck drivers just passing
through would necessarily bother with getting one; does anyone know
if the machines in truck stops even have a card 'slot'? If not, then
this completely eliminates what might have been the most reliable
source of data that could have been used.<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<

Agreed. I don't believe that the locations housing these machines
(also located in bars and resturants) have anything resembling a slot
club card. However, I'm pretty certain that these machines are
required to be connected to a central state government computer. I
would think that one of the primary pieces of data that the
government would like to monitor would be coin in vs. coin out
information. Even without remote monitoring, this info. could easily
be stored in the machine's computer memory for periodic retrieval.

an estimate -- which could be way off,

especially when we wonder what info it is based upon, and who made
the estimate. Was it a reporter who doesn't know anything about math
or gambling?>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>

It appeared from the article that the writer was quoting some
statistics provided to him by the local parish (county) government.
No additional clarification was provided as to what the numbers
actually meant. From what I've seen, news reporters generally do not
differentiate between terms like "wagered", "bought in for", "coin
in", "coin out", "won", "hold", "per cent return", etc. etc. I was
just trying to read between the lines to make some sense out of the
numbers quoted.

(snip)without at least some idea of what sort of paytables

the truck stops have; does anyone here know?<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<

I remember looking at one of these machines which at first glance had
what seemed like a reasonably good JOB type paytable, until I noticed
that the bottom pay line was for "ACES or better" rather than Jacks
or better. I'm sure the other games are similarly quirky. These
games are limited by state law to a maximum theoretical return of
94%, with perfect play. Also, the royal flush on quarter machines (I
think they may all be quarter machines) is limited to $500, no matter
how many coins are bet.

Now, the problem with concluding that a 65% return

(when that figure is determined by coin-in vs. coin-out) _MUST_ be
wrong simply because it is too low for us to imagine, is that it
assumes that the machines are honest, and it also assumes that the
aforementioned _presumed_ 90% ER is

accurate. But I have to wonder, with the government being a player
(receiving a cut of the profits as taxes), whether the ER is

necessarily as high as the aforementioned 90%.<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<

The 90% number that I threw out for a typical game is mostly a guess
based on the published maximum figure of 94%, along with a few brief
checks of some of the pay tables. I'm not sure if there is a set
minimum (theo.) return. Incidently, despite the horrid nature of
these machines, I do believe they are "honest". The regulation
governing these games has the typical language describing random card
selection for VP machines that one sees in other well regulated
states.

Second, does anyone know how closely Louisiana gaming

control monitors truck stops? It sounds like there are lots of them,
and gaming control could be turning a blind eye for any number of
reasons, such as being under-staffed, bribed, threatened, lazy,
indifferent, or whatever. I'm not stating that the latter is true,
but why should we _assume_ that it is not?<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<

I would be inclined to say that Louisiana monitors these locations
VERY CLOSELY. There are strict regulations controlling the number of
machines per location, physical placement, signage, remote
monitoring, liscensing, machine type, etc. More importantly, these
machines are a HUGE source of revenue for the state and the parishes
where they are legal. The state has a strong financial incentive to
keep a close watch on these machines.

EE

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Bill Velek <billvelek@a...> wrote:

Bill Velek wrote:

That was my gut reaction as soon as I read the 'truck stop' post;
however, I'm having a hard time grasping how the casino or anyone
else would be able to determine this figure other than by coin-in
vs. coin-out, or slot-club records, or by a mere estimate, which
might or might not be very accurate.

Bill, the definition of slot hold that would be consistent with the
calculation of table hold, 1 - (cash out/cash in) should be directly
determinable.

I'm reasonably confident (though not certain) that most slot machines
record these figures directly (and maintain meters for this as well as
having the numbers avilable to be pulled electronically when central
SDS systems are installed).

Certainly the cash in translates to what they physically empty from
the machines.

- Harry

Harry Porter wrote:

Certainly the cash in translates to what they physically empty from
the machines.

I jumped the gun in hitting "Enter" after typing this last statement.
Please ignore it.

- H.

eecounter wrote:

snip

>>>>>>>>>>(snip)without at least some idea of what sort of paytables
the truck stops have; does anyone here know?<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<

I remember looking at one of these machines which at first glance had
what seemed like a reasonably good JOB type paytable, until I noticed
that the bottom pay line was for "ACES or better" rather than Jacks
or better. I'm sure the other games are similarly quirky. These
games are limited by state law to a maximum theoretical return of
94%, with perfect play. Also, the royal flush on quarter machines (I
think they may all be quarter machines) is limited to $500, no matter
how many coins are bet.

I just checked WinPoker with full-coin JoB-6/5, but paying only Aces-High, reducing the Royal to 2000 coins, and then trimming the STFL to 200 and the Quad to 100, and perfect play yields only 78.44%. Anyway, regardless, anyone who knows anything at all about VP isn't going to play them.

Thanks for the response.

Cheers.

Bill Velek

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Bill Velek <billvelek@a...> wrote:

hold is the casino win
average hold is (1-ER), typical value is 20%
ER (expected return) depends on strategy for games that involve a
choice, it can be as high as computer perfect strategy (which are the
numbers you generally see reported) but is generally much less,
depending on player skills
computer perfect strategy means a computer checks each play and plays
the highest yielding play, for example:
http://www.gamblingtools.net/
winpoker and frugalvp will also give you the ER for computer perfect
strategy, in addition frugalvp will calculate the ER and Variance for
a given strategy
simple 9/6 jacks or better strategy, er=.9946:
http://wizardofodds.com/games/jacksorbetter/jacksorbetter_simp.html
perfect 9/6 jacks or better strategy, er=.9954:
http://wizardofodds.com/games/jacksorbetter/jacksorbetter.html

typical 9/6 jacks or better strategy:

4-3RF>HP>2P>4FL>LP>2RF>4STo>3-1H

according to frugalvp:
maxbet er=.9622
onebet er=.9837

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:

typical 9/6 jacks or better strategy:
>4-3RF>HP>2P>4FL>LP>2RF>4STo>3-1H
according to frugalvp:
maxbet er=.9622
onebet er=.9837

I'm assuming that what you've got there is your own custom strategy, and I'll take your word for the ER's that result from its use because I don't feel like playing around to confirm them.

First, why do you receive a higher ER when betting max-coin versus single-coin (that's what it looks like those figures represent), and if they actually mean something else, then you ought to be just a _little_ bit more explicit.

Second, looking in the first half of your strategy at "...HP>2P...", I interpret that to mean that you treat a high-pair as worth more than 2-pair, and I presume that this then means that when you have both a high-pair and a low-pair, that you throw the low-pair away; aside from assuming that you are shooting for a quad, why do you think that this is the better strategy? Do you realize that ... if your ERs indicated above are correct ... your strategy is costing you three and a third percent return? Surely you've made a mistake, or are unclear, or are joking. Or is this a trick of some sort? I know; you're getting even with me for bringing up Monty Hall. :wink:

Cheers.

Bill Velek

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:

> typical 9/6 jacks or better strategy:
> >4-3RF>HP>2P>4FL>LP>2RF>4STo>3-1H
> according to frugalvp:
> maxbet er=.9622
> onebet er=.9837

I'm assuming that what you've got there is your own custom

strategy, and

I'll take your word for the ER's that result from its use because I
don't feel like playing around to confirm them.

First, why do you receive a higher ER when betting max-coin versus
single-coin (that's what it looks like those figures represent),

and if

they actually mean something else, then you ought to be just a

_little_

bit more explicit.

higher ER for short coin
i'm sure the strategy has something to do with it, lol

Second, looking in the first half of your strategy

at "...HP>2P...", I

interpret that to mean that you treat a high-pair as worth more

than

2-pair, and I presume that this then means that when you have both

a

high-pair and a low-pair, that you throw the low-pair away; aside

from

assuming that you are shooting for a quad, why do you think that

this is

the better strategy? Do you realize that ... if your ERs indicated
above are correct ... your strategy is costing you three and a

third

percent return? Surely you've made a mistake, or are unclear, or

are

joking. Or is this a trick of some sort? I know; you're getting

even

with me for bringing up Monty Hall. :wink:

Cheers.

Bill Velek

*typical*, not better
this is meant to be an illustration of how strategy effects ER

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Bill Velek <billvelek@a...> wrote:

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:

> nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:
>
> > typical 9/6 jacks or better strategy:
> > >4-3RF>HP>2P>4FL>LP>2RF>4STo>3-1H
> > according to frugalvp:
> > maxbet er=.9622
> > onebet er=.9837
>
> I'm assuming that what you've got there is your own custom
strategy, and
> I'll take your word for the ER's that result from its use because I
> don't feel like playing around to confirm them.
>
> First, why do you receive a higher ER when betting max-coin versus
> single-coin ...?

snip

higher ER for short coin
i'm sure the strategy has something to do with it, lol

Right. I twisted it around ass-backwards. What I meant to ask was why the single-coin has a higher ER than the max-coin; it doesn't make sense because as long as there is any sort of a premium or bonus paid for any hand during full-coin play, that makes it impossible to develop any sort of a strategy that would _ever_ result in a higher ER for short-coin than full-coin. This is because by merely using the identical short-coin strategy when playing full-coin, you get the identical return except when you hit the bonus hands, like the Royal, at which point the ER for the full-coin immediately surpasses the short-coin.

Bill Velek

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Bill Velek <billvelek@a...> wrote:

The hold has nothing to do with the paytable. Most are much more

than

the 1.5% he talked about

Would you care to elaborate.