vpFREE2 Forums

RoR, RoRBR, RoRBSR, RoRBPSR ? Help!

#1

A buddy of mine just came back from a cruise to Burmuda. He told me that on the ship,
there were some versions of 9/5 JoB that he had never seen before. The payouts were the
same as regular short pay 9/5 JoB with the addition of another Jackpot, but the additional
jackpot vaired from-game-to-game. One of the jackpots was for a sequential Royal (8000
coins), and another was for a Royal of a particular suit (8000 coins). Different machines had
different suits.

He told me that he had tried to compute the RoRBSR (RoR before Sequential Royal) and
RoRBPSR (RoR before partiucalr suit Royal) using Steve's method, but eveytime he got the
exact same answer for both games, RoRBSR = RoRBPSR. I thought I understood Steve's
method, but I too found the same answers so I think I must be doing something wrong. How
could the RoR_R odds be the same for both since the odds of hitting a sequential Royal are
not the same as hitting a Royal of a Particular suit?

Anyone have any idea what we are doing wrong? How come the RoRB_R computations don't
depend at all on the probability of the Jackpot?

#2

If you will post both of the equations you used for these two cases, I'll try
to point you in the right direction.

···

On Monday 14 November 2005 06:53 am, cdfsrule wrote:

A buddy of mine just came back from a cruise to Burmuda. He told me that
on the ship, there were some versions of 9/5 JoB that he had never seen
before. The payouts were the same as regular short pay 9/5 JoB with the
addition of another Jackpot, but the additional jackpot vaired
from-game-to-game. One of the jackpots was for a sequential Royal (8000
coins), and another was for a Royal of a particular suit (8000 coins).
Different machines had different suits.

He told me that he had tried to compute the RoRBSR (RoR before Sequential
Royal) and RoRBPSR (RoR before partiucalr suit Royal) using Steve's method,
but eveytime he got the exact same answer for both games, RoRBSR =
RoRBPSR. I thought I understood Steve's method, but I too found the same
answers so I think I must be doing something wrong. How could the RoR_R
odds be the same for both since the odds of hitting a sequential Royal are
not the same as hitting a Royal of a Particular suit?

Anyone have any idea what we are doing wrong? How come the RoRB_R
computations don't depend at all on the probability of the Jackpot?

#3

Excellent... BTW, I know what's wrong with the problem... it is making a false assumption. It
is impossible to have exactly all the same probabilities if the paytables aren't the same. So it's
a stupid question, and your RoR method works fine. THanks for your help anyway.

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Steve Jacobs <jacobs@x...> wrote:

If you will post both of the equations you used for these two cases, I'll try
to point you in the right direction.

#4

My VP program cannot handle sequential royals when computing
optimal strategies. As an approximation, I used the max-EV strategy
for a standard 9/5 JoB game and created equivalent payoff probabilities
for the sequential royal by dividing the royal probability by 60, assuming
it pays the bonus whether the royal is AKQJT or TJQKA. I get the
following numbers for the two games you described, based on that
assumption:

Bonus for any sequential royal:

F = 0.9999741496970464
prob(bonus) = 1 / 38670.80260413
50/50 bankroll: 26805 units

Bonus for either sequential royal, but only in one suit:

F = 0.9999933564369503
prob(bonus) = 1 / 151521.6391446
50/50 bankroll: 104333 units.

···

On Monday 14 November 2005 05:15 pm, cdfsrule wrote:

Excellent... BTW, I know what's wrong with the problem... it is making a
false assumption. It is impossible to have exactly all the same
probabilities if the paytables aren't the same. So it's a stupid question,
and your RoR method works fine. THanks for your help anyway.