Please bear with the long introduction.
The windmill chaser is back. So I will first address this question to
the administator so he/she can determine if this is a suitable
question for all, or is it better handled as private responses only
to me if such a thing is allowed on this website, or is it better
handled on freeVPfree (heaven forbid), or its just to stupid to
post. I think in the past my questions have been reasonable. For
example I find that there aren't many admitted higher rolling VP
players in the country who face a tax situation similar to mine.
Rather than repeating credentials I will just say I am a retired ex
businessman which with college technical and business degrees who
have played VP at progressively higher denominations for six or more
years. At my age I enjoy the kick of learning just for the sake of
learning and if I happen to turn it into a new profession that's
great, but if I fail I am no worth for wear other than time lost.
That said let me try a new version of of an old question that I have
voiced on this and other websites.
I know that if you play over the long run with perfect play you end
up with the summation of the results that the pay table states. I
also know that during this period of infinite play, there are random
repeated violent swings around the mean of the long run curve as time
goes from 0 to infinity. I also know that at least at the beginning
of (Pick a number 0-20,000 hands?) many of the swings quitting at an
appropriate time can leave you with more money than you started
with. The higher the variance of the game the more volatile the
swings. I also recognize that the swings while definitely random
over time will be present even if magnitude and duration are random.
So I say to myself how is this any different than speculation in for
example currency trading, high growth stocks, etc. I also say why
are the market transaction fees (amount could be) any different than
the casino edge in for example video poker. Let's take $5 Jacks or
better at Wynn just as an example and lets forget about any comps for
this disciussion other than cash back where the edge would be (1-
99.54) plus ,22 cashback for a total of .26% with long run perfect
play. While the number is small to any individual its huge to the
casino given total coin in and non perfect play which most of us do.
So is this .26% much different in principle than the brokerage fees
on a financial transaction (forget the exact amounts). So I says(sic)
to myself, given this transaction fee can the short term random
swings be played to overcome the transaction fees and end up a winner
in the (Here comes a bad word) short run. Now I don't know much
about momentum investors in financial market, and I admit many of
them go broke, but I believe that some professors out there have
come up with some mathematical formula that they have applied to
short term investing. So far the little I've read leads me to
believe that perhaps "game theory" (Von Neumann et al, can
theoretically provide such an answer even though it might be
impossible to implement in the real world. I read a recent short
article on this subject by Mike Caro as it applies to live poker
playing. It seemed to me instead of assuming that you're playing
against a live player, you're playing against a random number
generator as an opponent in video poker.
That said, who can direct me to the field of study, books, doctoral
theses etc, where this kind of subject is discussed. I am continuing
my search at the same time. Denny
Guidance please. Denny
So long as you post straightforward vp-related
... but that's simply my take -- everyone is welcome to