Dan, on page 31 of "The Best of Video Poker Times (and More)" revised
edition, in the discussion on calculating the lowest point on the -2
SD standard deviation curve, you state that "it turns out that this
occurs at one fourth the number of hands to the zero intercept."
Is this also true of the -3 SD curve? Does the minimum of the -3 SD
curve occur at one fourth the hands to the zero intercept? If not,
how can I compute the minimum of the -3 SD curve?
My ultimate goal is to use your formulas to calculate the BR needed
to withstand a -3SD swing in FPDW.
I assume I can use the formula on page 30 to calculate the zero
intercept of any positive game for any -SD curve, correct? If so, I
came up with a -3 SD curve zero intercept of 1,017,427 hands for
FPDW. Am I on the right track?
Thanks so much for your help, and for a great book.
Kephus