From thw database:
Pick 'em - FP = 2-3-5-11-15-18-120-239.8-1200 (99.95% - 15.0 VAR).
Jacks or Better - FP = 1-2-3-4-6-9-25-50-800 (99.54% - 19.5 VAR).
How does Pick'em have a lower var than JoB if it's easier to hit the
Royal in JoB?
THX
From thw database:
Pick 'em - FP = 2-3-5-11-15-18-120-239.8-1200 (99.95% - 15.0 VAR).
Jacks or Better - FP = 1-2-3-4-6-9-25-50-800 (99.54% - 19.5 VAR).
How does Pick'em have a lower var than JoB if it's easier to hit the
Royal in JoB?
THX
In 9/6 jb the Royal contributes %1.98 of the total return. In Pick-Em the Royal only accounts for %0.34 . The straight flushes and the quads are close.
So there you have it, less dependence on the Royal gives a lower Variance.
Regards
A.P.
----- Original Message -----
From: stut70@yahoo.com
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Wednesday, December 17, 2003 10:40 PM
Subject: [vpFREE] How does Pick'Em have a 15Var if it's hard to hit the Royal?
From thw database:
Pick 'em - FP = 2-3-5-11-15-18-120-239.8-1200 (99.95% - 15.0 VAR).
Jacks or Better - FP = 1-2-3-4-6-9-25-50-800 (99.54% - 19.5 VAR).
How does Pick'em have a lower var than JoB if it's easier to hit the
Royal in JoB?
THX
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]