I tried to ask this question a couple of weeks ago, but the one
response I got indicated I didn't make myself clear. Free play is not
quite the same as cashback in that one must play through it once before
cashing out. However, isn't net free play (what's left after
satisfying the "must play through once before cashing out" requirement)
the equivalent of cashback? Shouldn't I calculate its cashback
equivalent and add it to the cashback % plus the game's return % to get
to the bottom line return %? For example, if I complete a free
play "session" and then continue playing until cashback equals the
freeplay's cashback equivalent, haven't I effectively doubled the
cashback %?
Free play and the bottom line
I tried to ask this question a couple of weeks ago, but the one
response I got indicated I didn't make myself clear. Free play is not
quite the same as cashback in that one must play through it once before
cashing out. However, isn't net free play (what's left after
satisfying the "must play through once before cashing out" requirement)
the equivalent of cashback?
Yes.
(Freeplay) X (ER of the machine) = Cashback equivalent.
Shouldn't I calculate its cashback equivalent and add it to the
cashback % plus the game's return % to get to the bottom line return
%?
You would have relate the freeplay to anticipated coin-in
to arrive at a freeplay percentage.
For example, if I complete a free play "session" and then continue
playing until cashback equals the freeplay's cashback equivalent,
haven't I effectively doubled the cashback %?
That's one way of looking at it. I would just say that
I got X dollars of freeplay, turned it into Y dollars of
actual cash, and also collected Z dollars of cashback
as a result of my play.
···
On 16 May 2008 at 16:18, aprvp78748 wrote:
Free Play can be about the same as cash back by making the free play in to as many hands as possible to lessen the variance. For example, if you can play nickels (at the same payback of course) you have more hands and the likely reult will be closer to the theoretical.
> I tried to ask this question a couple of weeks ago, but the one
> response I got indicated I didn't make myself clear. Free play is not
> quite the same as cashback in that one must play through it once before
> cashing out. However, isn't net free play (what's left after
> satisfying the "must play through once before cashing out" requirement)
> the equivalent of cashback?
Yes.
(Freeplay) X (ER of the machine) = Cashback equivalent.
> Shouldn't I calculate its cashback equivalent and add it to the
> cashback % plus the game's return % to get to the bottom line return
> %?
You would have relate the freeplay to anticipated coin-in
to arrive at a freeplay percentage.
> For example, if I complete a free play "session" and then continue
> playing until cashback equals the freeplay's cashback equivalent,
> haven't I effectively doubled the cashback %?
That's one way of looking at it. I would just say that
I got X dollars of freeplay, turned it into Y dollars of
actual cash, and also collected Z dollars of cashback
as a result of my play.
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
···
vpFae <vpFae@Cox.net> wrote: On 16 May 2008 at 16:18, aprvp78748 wrote:
pesach kremen wrote:
Free Play can be about the same as cash back by making the free play
in to as many hands as possible to lessen the variance. For example,
if you can play nickels (at the same payback of course) you have more
hands and the likely reult will be closer to the theoretical.
Reducing denom/playing more Free Play hands doesn't change it's value
(EV); it does reduce the variance on what you'll realize from it.
Generally speaking, you have no greater incentive to reduce that
variance of Free Play by cutting denom than you do for any of your
other play.
(Unless you saved the Free play for the end of the day, tapped your
bankroll out on the earlier standard play, and need bus fare home.)
- H.