vpFREE2 Forums

Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008

Randomness in Video Poker Results

http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html

<a href="http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html">
http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html</a>

···

************************************************

This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.

************************************************

Bob wrote:
"This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past I
argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a year,
your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary times you
experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once you
cannot know for sure. "

That's where "N0" comes in:

http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO.htm

N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^2 hands. For FPDW and
zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error rate:
26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances of
being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance of
losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a 50-50
proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you or
the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results are
50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The games
you play and how you play them determines which distribution you are
in, your actual results in your distribution is determined by "luck".

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "vpFae" <vpFae@...> wrote:

Randomness in Video Poker Results

http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html

<a href="http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html">
http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html</a>

************************************************

This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.

************************************************

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO1.htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity to
play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week for
50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your brain),
you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's play.
And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about a
year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where you
have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000"
<nightoftheiguana2000@...> wrote:

Bob wrote:
"This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past I
argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a

year,

your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary times

you

experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once you
cannot know for sure. "

That's where "N0" comes in:

http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO.htm

N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^2 hands. For FPDW and
zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error rate:
26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances of
being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance of
losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a 50-

50

proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you or
the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results

are

50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The

games

you play and how you play them determines which distribution you are
in, your actual results in your distribution is determined

by "luck".

>
> Randomness in Video Poker Results
>
> http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html
>
> <a

href="http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html">

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html</a>
>
>
> ************************************************
>
> This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
>
> ************************************************
>

I would most heartily second Dancer's recommendation of "The Black Swan", a wonderful,
insightful and important read (in my opinion, of course).

I would also add that it would be good to read "Fooled by Randomness" by the same
author before you got to "The Black Swan".

Both will open your eyes on a lot of things about the way you think and how you come to
conclusions.

..... bl

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "vpFae" <vpFae@...> wrote:

Randomness in Video Poker Results

http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html

<a href="http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html">
http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html</a>

************************************************

This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.

************************************************

How would a multi line game with they same 9/6 JOB and .8 cash back effect this concept? Say you played 10 lines would the hours necessary be reduced? How much?

···

--- On Wed, 11/5/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@hotmail.com> wrote:

From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@hotmail.com>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups.com
Date: Wednesday, November 5, 2008, 2:28 PM

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO1. htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity to
play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week for
50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your brain),
you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's play.
And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about a
year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where you
have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "nightoftheiguana20 00"
<nightoftheiguana20 00@...> wrote:

Bob wrote:
"This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past I
argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a

year,

your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary times

you

experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once you
cannot know for sure. "

That's where "N0" comes in:

http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO.htm

N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^ 2 hands. For FPDW and
zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error rate:
26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances of
being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance of
losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a 50-

50

proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you or
the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results

are

50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The

games

you play and how you play them determines which distribution you are
in, your actual results in your distribution is determined

by "luck".

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
>
> Randomness in Video Poker Results
>
> http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html
>
> <a

href="http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html">

> http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html</a>
>
>
> ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
>
> This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
>
> ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

Multiplay per bet variance is reduced, for JOB the formula is 2 +
17.5/N. If you actually get N0 below the top cycle time, the cycle
time becomes dominant. Cycle math is straightforward, the probability
of not hitting a jackpot in one cycle is about 1/3, 2 cycles is about
1/3 of 1/3, 3 cycles is about 1/3 of 1/3 of 1/3 ... 50 and 100 plays
are often dominated by dealt hand cycle times, not N0.

How would a multi line game with they same 9/6 JOB and .8 cash back

effect this concept? Say you played 10 lines would the hours necessary
be reduced? How much?

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, John Clark <jaycee5353@...> wrote:

--- On Wed, 11/5/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@...> wrote:

From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@...>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups.com
Date: Wednesday, November 5, 2008, 2:28 PM

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO1. htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity to
play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week for
50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your brain),
you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's play.
And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about a
year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where you
have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "nightoftheiguana20 00"
<nightoftheiguana20 00@> wrote:
>
> Bob wrote:
> "This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past I
> argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a
year,
> your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
> undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary times
you
> experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once you
> cannot know for sure. "
>
> That's where "N0" comes in:
>
> http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO.htm
>
> N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^ 2 hands. For FPDW and
> zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
> comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error rate:
> 26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances of
> being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
> negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance of
> losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a 50-
50
> proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
> eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you or
> the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results
are
> 50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The
games
> you play and how you play them determines which distribution you are
> in, your actual results in your distribution is determined
by "luck".
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> >
> > Randomness in Video Poker Results
> >
> > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html
> >
> > <a
href="http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html">
> > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html</a>
> >
> >
> > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> >
> > This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> > constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> > content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> > in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
> >
> > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> >
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

How would a multi line game with they same 9/6 JOB and .8 cash back

effect this concept? Say you played 10 lines would the hours
necessary be reduced? How much?

Yes, the hours would be reduced. To get NO for multi-line, you use
the same formula. But you have to express variance and ev in terms
of a single unit.

The variance of a single play of 1-line JOB is 19.5. That's the
variance of a 1-unit total bet. (If you bet $5 on a 5-coin $1
machine, your variance per play is NOT 19.5. It's actually 487.9;
that's 19.5 x 5^2.)

To get the variance of 10-line, we can use jazbo's figure for
covariance (see http://jazbo.com/videopoker/nplay.html )

Jazbo's figure lets us calculate 10-line variance as 19.5 + (10-1)
*1.966 = 37.2. But because it's for 10 lines, that "37.2" is the
variance of a 10-unit play. The variance of a single unit on the 10-
play is 37.2/10 = 3.72.

Therefore, "NO" for the 10-line game with 0.8% cashback is:

"NO" = 3.72/(0.34%)^2 = 321,800 plays.

So it takes about 1/5 as long to reach "NO" playing 10-line as 1-line
for the JOB game with 0.8% cashback (and no errors). A mere 400
hours if you can play 800 plays/hr with a 10-line game.

--Dunbar

From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@...>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups.com
Date: Wednesday, November 5, 2008, 2:28 PM

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO1. htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity

to

play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week

for

50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your

brain),

you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's

play.

And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about

a

year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where

you

have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "nightoftheiguana20 00"
<nightoftheiguana20 00@> wrote:
>
> Bob wrote:
> "This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past

I

> argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a
year,
> your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
> undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary

times

you
> experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once

you

> cannot know for sure. "
>
> That's where "N0" comes in:
>
> http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO.htm
>
> N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^ 2 hands. For FPDW

and

> zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
> comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error

rate:

> 26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances

of

> being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
> negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance

of

> losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a

50-

50
> proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
> eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you

or

> the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results
are
> 50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The
games
> you play and how you play them determines which distribution you

are

> in, your actual results in your distribution is determined
by "luck".
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> >
> > Randomness in Video Poker Results
> >
> > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html
> >
> > <a
href="http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/

1104.html">

> > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/

1104.html</a>

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, John Clark <jaycee5353@...> wrote:

--- On Wed, 11/5/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@...> wrote:
> >
> >
> > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> >
> > This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> > constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> > content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> > in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
> >
> > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> >
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

Just a caveat, that's less than the dealt royal cycle (649,740), but
for this game the dealt royal is only 800/649,740 = 0.12% of the
return. Still, it would be prudent to discount the dealt royal from
the return. Other games will be different (like games with kicker hands).

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@...> wrote:

Therefore, "NO" for the 10-line game with 0.8% cashback is:

"NO" = 3.72/(0.34%)^2 = 321,800 plays.

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000"
<nightoftheiguana2000@...> wrote:

> Therefore, "NO" for the 10-line game with 0.8% cashback is:
>
> "NO" = 3.72/(0.34%)^2 = 321,800 plays.

Just a caveat, that's less than the dealt royal cycle (649,740), but
for this game the dealt royal is only 800/649,740 = 0.12% of the
return. Still, it would be prudent to discount the dealt royal from
the return. Other games will be different (like games with kicker

hands).

I'm not sure it makes sense to reduce the return as you suggest. 39%
of players will get that dealt royal before reaching the 321,800
plays. The standard deviation after 321,800 plays is 1094 units.
Ignoring a 800-unit win from nearly 2/5 of players would be like
forcing a 0.8 SD negative swing into those players' stats.

"NO" reflects a probability--the 84% probability that you will be
ahead after that many hands. It seems to me that the dealt royal,
rare as it is on any one pull, is part of that probability.

Are you saying that the normal distribution assumption breaks down in
a case like this, so that the 84% figure is no longer applicable?

--Dunbar

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@> wrote:

Thank you for the detailed math answer. I believe I understand. Would it be correct to say increasing the number of hands to say 15, 20,25 or even 50 would reduce the number of hands further? Would I also be correct that each increase in the number of hands would increase the necessary bankroll or that reducing the number of hand to say 5 would reduce the bankroll necessary? How much difference in dollars would those choices make? Of course 5 lines are higher could not be played at an 800 hand per hour rate but the number of hands could be used to determine the time based on possible speed. Thanks for your excellent contribution to this group.

···

--- On Thu, 11/6/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@hotmail.com> wrote:

From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@hotmail.com>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups.com
Date: Thursday, November 6, 2008, 6:09 PM

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, John Clark <jaycee5353@ ...> wrote:

How would a multi line game with they same 9/6 JOB and .8 cash back

effect this concept? Say you played 10 lines would the hours
necessary be reduced? How much?

Yes, the hours would be reduced. To get NO for multi-line, you use
the same formula. But you have to express variance and ev in terms
of a single unit.

The variance of a single play of 1-line JOB is 19.5. That's the
variance of a 1-unit total bet. (If you bet $5 on a 5-coin $1
machine, your variance per play is NOT 19.5. It's actually 487.9;
that's 19.5 x 5^2.)

To get the variance of 10-line, we can use jazbo's figure for
covariance (see http://jazbo. com/videopoker/ nplay.html )

Jazbo's figure lets us calculate 10-line variance as 19.5 + (10-1)
*1.966 = 37.2. But because it's for 10 lines, that "37.2" is the
variance of a 10-unit play. The variance of a single unit on the 10-
play is 37.2/10 = 3.72.

Therefore, "NO" for the 10-line game with 0.8% cashback is:

"NO" = 3.72/(0.34%) ^2 = 321,800 plays.

So it takes about 1/5 as long to reach "NO" playing 10-line as 1-line
for the JOB game with 0.8% cashback (and no errors). A mere 400
hours if you can play 800 plays/hr with a 10-line game.

--Dunbar

--- On Wed, 11/5/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@.. .> wrote:

From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@.. .>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups. com
Date: Wednesday, November 5, 2008, 2:28 PM

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO1. htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity

to

play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week

for

50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your

brain),

you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's

play.

And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about

a

year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where

you

have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "nightoftheiguana20 00"
<nightoftheiguana20 00@> wrote:
>
> Bob wrote:
> "This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past

I

> argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a
year,
> your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
> undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary

times

you
> experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once

you

> cannot know for sure. "
>
> That's where "N0" comes in:
>
> http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO.htm
>
> N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^ 2 hands. For FPDW

and

> zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
> comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error

rate:

> 26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances

of

> being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
> negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance

of

> losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a

50-

50
> proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
> eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you

or

> the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results
are
> 50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The
games
> you play and how you play them determines which distribution you

are

> in, your actual results in your distribution is determined
by "luck".
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> >
> > Randomness in Video Poker Results
> >
> > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/ 1104.html
> >
> > <a
href="http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/

1104.html">

> > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/

1104.html</a>

> >
> >
> > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> >
> > This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> > constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> > content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> > in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
> >
> > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> >
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

Yeah, that's what I'm thinking. Once you go below a cycle, assuming a
normal distribution can introduce a lot of error (actually what you
get is a normal distribution on top of a binary function). A funny
thing happens on multiplays, with a single hand, a dealt royal and a
drawn royal are both 800 bets, with a multiplay a drawn royal has been
reduced to 800/N bets, making the dealt hand more significant.

I agree that a full discount of payouts with less than a cycle is
overkill, I'm not sure what an appropriate discount would be. One
approach would be to treat it as two separate normal distributions,
one with the payout and one without, and then add up the percents
positive to get a total figure. That would be more accurate than
assuming the whole thing is a normal distribution.

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@...> wrote:

Are you saying that the normal distribution assumption breaks down in
a case like this, so that the 84% figure is no longer applicable?

Just an on the fly estimate: 0.2SD should be 42% negative, so 2/5 of
16% plus 3/5 of 42% = 32% negative. So, if your goal is 16% negative,
more hands would be required, in this case.

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@...> wrote:

I'm not sure it makes sense to reduce the return as you suggest. 39%
of players will get that dealt royal before reaching the 321,800
plays. The standard deviation after 321,800 plays is 1094 units.
Ignoring a 800-unit win from nearly 2/5 of players would be like
forcing a 0.8 SD negative swing into those players' stats.

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:

I agree that a full discount of payouts with less than a cycle is
overkill, I'm not sure what an appropriate discount would be. One
approach would be to treat it as two separate normal distributions,
one with the payout and one without, and then add up the percents
positive to get a total figure. That would be more accurate than
assuming the whole thing is a normal distribution.

Well, I'm not sure what measure you're talking about discounting. In
essence, it's inherently discounted when discussing N0, bankroll, or
ROR. And these are the measures where I think it's most appropriate
to take into consideration the "iffyness" of a hit.

When it comes to adjusting expected game return, that's mushy science.
I get the idea that you might want to "lower" return expectation as
the potential deviation from that expectation grows larger and larger.
(I assume that's the purpose involved here, and not just some
abstract exercise.)

But there's uncertainty downside risk within every hand, and the
magnitudes involved with modest frequency shortfalls of short-cycle
hands can easily dwarf the potential return shortfall involved on the
dealt royal. It seems to me that it's every bit as much appropriate
to discount return for that (for example, a 5%+ shortfall in FH hits)
as it is the dealt royal. (In other words, "don't" :wink:

- Harry

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@> wrote:

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:
> I agree that a full discount of payouts with less than a cycle is
> overkill, I'm not sure what an appropriate discount would be.

Harry Porter wrote:

Well, I'm not sure what measure you're talking about discounting.
In essence, it's inherently discounted when discussing N0,
bankroll, or ROR ...

There isn't the benefit of a post "edit" with Yahoo! Groups, so let me
append a quick thought that gets to the heart of what's on my mind
with this:

Doesn't variance, as an input to N0, inherently capture that discount?

- H.

···

> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@> wrote:

If you're expecting an 84% chance of winning at N0 hands, you probably
won't get it if N0 is less than the top jackpot cycle time, because
the distribution is not very normal at that point, you remember the
Jazbo curves? With a single line, you probably won't get N0 that low,
but it can happen on a multiplay, especially 50 and 100 play. The top
jackpot cycle times depend on the game you're playing.

http://www.jazbo.com/videopoker/curves.html

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Harry Porter" <harry.porter@...> wrote:

Doesn't variance, as an input to N0, inherently capture that discount?

I like where this is going.
The variance is of little help. The issues are:
(1) how normal-like the central region of the distribution is,
(2) how close to each other the following are: mean, median, mode, and
(3) the "area" under the curve in the normal-like central region relative to the entire
distribution (which has area = 1 or 100%)

Making the assumption that the curve is normal here is akin to "erasing" the distribution
outside of the normal-like central region AND ignoring the effects on the mean and
variance (etc) of that deletion. On the other hand, subtracting out the return of a jackpot
hand not only makes the distribution more normal, but it also adjusts the mean and
variance appropriately. It's any entirely different thing.

FWIW, the actual distribution initially "looks" like a series of repeated copies of the central
area (more-or-less), each on centered on the return of a particular hand. Since the jackpot hands have a much larger return, these "copies" are well separated, initially, from
the central area and they contain very little "area". In the central region, all these "copies"
pile up and are not obviously separable, and one see just a nice smooth curve.
Mathematically this operation (that accounts for the "copies") is called convolution (and its
not just simple addition).

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000" <nightoftheiguana2000@...>
wrote:

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Harry Porter" <harry.porter@> wrote:
> Doesn't variance, as an input to N0, inherently capture that discount?

If you're expecting an 84% chance of winning at N0 hands, you probably
won't get it if N0 is less than the top jackpot cycle time, because
the distribution is not very normal at that point, you remember the
Jazbo curves? With a single line, you probably won't get N0 that low,
but it can happen on a multiplay, especially 50 and 100 play. The top
jackpot cycle times depend on the game you're playing.

http://www.jazbo.com/videopoker/curves.html

Thank you for the detailed math answer. I believe I understand.
Would it be correct to say increasing the number of hands to say 15,
20,25 or even 50 would reduce the number of hands further?

Yes, and you can figure it out yourself using jazbo's expression that
I alluded to. For 15-line...

1. Var(15-lines) = 19.5 + (15-1) * 1.966, where 1.966 is jazbo's
figure for the covariance of 9/6 JOB.

2. Then divide the resulting variance by 15 to get the unit variance.

3. Now divide the unit variance by the EV^2. For 0.8% cashback,
EV=0.34%.

Would I also be correct that each increase in the number of hands
would increase the necessary bankroll or that reducing the number of
hand to say 5 would reduce the bankroll necessary?

Yes, assuming you are playing the same denomination.

How much difference in dollars would those choices make? Of course 5
lines are higher could not be played at an 800 hand per hour rate
but the number of hands could be used to determine the time based on
possible speed.

You can use jazbo's variance expression to get a rough idea. For a
precise answer, Bob Dancer's Video Poker for Winners does multi-line
bankroll calcs. I'm not sure if any other currently available
software does.

Thanks for your excellent contribution to this group.

You betcha!

--Dunbar

From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@...>
Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008
To: vpFREE@yahoogroups.com
Date: Thursday, November 6, 2008, 6:09 PM

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, John Clark <jaycee5353@ ...> wrote:
>
> How would a multi line game with they same 9/6 JOB and .8 cash

back

effect this concept? Say you played 10 lines would the hours
necessary be reduced? How much?

Yes, the hours would be reduced. To get NO for multi-line, you use
the same formula. But you have to express variance and ev in terms
of a single unit.

The variance of a single play of 1-line JOB is 19.5. That's the
variance of a 1-unit total bet. (If you bet $5 on a 5-coin $1
machine, your variance per play is NOT 19.5. It's actually 487.9;
that's 19.5 x 5^2.)

To get the variance of 10-line, we can use jazbo's figure for
covariance (see http://jazbo. com/videopoker/ nplay.html )

Jazbo's figure lets us calculate 10-line variance as 19.5 + (10-1)
*1.966 = 37.2. But because it's for 10 lines, that "37.2" is the
variance of a 10-unit play. The variance of a single unit on the 10-
play is 37.2/10 = 3.72.

Therefore, "NO" for the 10-line game with 0.8% cashback is:

"NO" = 3.72/(0.34%) ^2 = 321,800 plays.

So it takes about 1/5 as long to reach "NO" playing 10-line as 1-

line

for the JOB game with 0.8% cashback (and no errors). A mere 400
hours if you can play 800 plays/hr with a 10-line game.

--Dunbar

>
>
> From: dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@ .>
> Subject: [vpFREE] Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV

2008

> To: vpFREE@yahoogroups. com
> Date: Wednesday, November 5, 2008, 2:28 PM
>
>
>
>
>
>
> I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.
>
> http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO1. htm
>
> Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6

JOB

> game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity
to
> play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34%

edge.

> But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
> 2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week
for
> 50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your
brain),
> you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's
play.
> And that's with perfect play.
>
> If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
> climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours

(about

a
> year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where
you
> have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.
>
> --Dunbar
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "nightoftheiguana20 00"
> <nightoftheiguana20 00@> wrote:
> >
> > Bob wrote:
> > "This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the

past

I
> > argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a
> year,
> > your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this

would

> > undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary
times
> you
> > experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once
you
> > cannot know for sure. "
> >
> > That's where "N0" comes in:
> >
> > http://members. cox.net/vpfree/ Bank_NO.htm
> >
> > N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^ 2 hands. For FPDW
and
> > zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players),

that

> > comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error
rate:
> > 26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your

chances

of
> > being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
> > negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84%

chance

of
> > losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's

a

50-
> 50
> > proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
> > eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either

you

or
> > the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the

results

> are
> > 50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The
> games
> > you play and how you play them determines which distribution

you

are
> > in, your actual results in your distribution is determined
> by "luck".
> >
> > --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups. com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> > >
> > > Randomness in Video Poker Results
> > >
> > > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/

1104.html

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, John Clark <jaycee5353@...> wrote:

--- On Thu, 11/6/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@...> wrote:
> --- On Wed, 11/5/08, dunbar_dra <h_dunbar@ .> wrote:
> > >
> > > <a
> href="http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/
1104.html">
> > > http://www.casinoga ming.com/ columnists/ dancer/2008/
1104.html</a>
> > >
> > >
> > > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> > >
> > > This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> > > constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> > > content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> > > in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
> > >
> > > ************ ********* ********* ********* *********
> > >
> >
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

How is error rate defined?
Does it mean EV is reduced by .05%?
Gambling at 100% EV game with a .05% error rate then the EV = 99.95%?
Based on the above, I'm thinking .05% error rate is optimistic when I'm in a casino gambling. (Alcohol may be involved).
Tnx

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@...> wrote:

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO1.htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity to
play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week for
50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your brain),
you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's play.
And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about a
year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where you
have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000"
<nightoftheiguana2000@> wrote:
>
> Bob wrote:
> "This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past I
> argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a
year,
> your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
> undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary times
you
> experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once you
> cannot know for sure. "
>
> That's where "N0" comes in:
>
> http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO.htm
>
> N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^2 hands. For FPDW and
> zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
> comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error rate:
> 26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances of
> being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
> negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance of
> losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a 50-
50
> proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
> eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you or
> the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results
are
> 50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The
games
> you play and how you play them determines which distribution you are
> in, your actual results in your distribution is determined
by "luck".
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> >
> > Randomness in Video Poker Results
> >
> > http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html
> >
> > <a
href="http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html">
> > http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html</a>
> >
> >
> > ************************************************
> >
> > This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> > constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> > content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> > in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
> >
> > ************************************************
> >
>

But the alcohol is free.. So make sure its not the cheap stuff. :slight_smile:

···

Sent via BlackBerry from T-Mobile

-----Original Message-----
From: "Dave" <haaljo@yahoo.com>
Date: Thu, 25 Mar 2010 03:12:50
To: <vpFREE@yahoogroups.com>
Subject: [vpFREE] Definition of Error rate was Re: Bob Dancer's CasinoGaming Column - 4 NOV 2008

How is error rate defined?
Does it mean EV is reduced by .05%?
Gambling at 100% EV game with a .05% error rate then the EV = 99.95%?
Based on the above, I'm thinking .05% error rate is optimistic when I'm in a casino gambling. (Alcohol may be involved).
Tnx

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@...> wrote:

I agree with NOTI that "NO" is a very useful concept.

http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO1.htm

Here's another example of "NO" that is sobering. Consider a 9/6 JOB
game with 0.8% cashback. Many would be excited by the opportunity to
play such a low variance version of video poker with a +0.34% edge.
But even with perfect play, "NO" is 1,650,000 hands. That's about
2000 hours if you play 800 hands/hr. So, if you play 40 hrs/week for
50 weeks of the year (taking 2 weeks off to try to unfry your brain),
you'd still have a 16% chance of being behind after the year's play.
And that's with perfect play.

If you give up as little as 0.05% to errors for that game, "NO"
climbs to 2,300,000 hands. Now you're looking at 2900 hours (about a
year-and-a-half of 40-hour weeks) just to get to the point where you
have about a 5/6 chance of being ahead.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000"
<nightoftheiguana2000@> wrote:
>
> Bob wrote:
> "This column reflects a recent change in my thinking. In the past I
> argued that if you played more than a couple of hundred hours a
year,
> your results were pretty much what you deserved. While this would
> undoubtedly be true if you could look at all 1,000 imaginary times
you
> experienced the same year, when you only experience a year once you
> cannot know for sure. "
>
> That's where "N0" comes in:
>
> http://members.cox.net/vpfree/Bank_NO.htm
>
> N0 can be approximated as variance/advantage^2 hands. For FPDW and
> zero error rate (an unrealistic error rate for most players), that
> comes out to 26/.0076^2 = 450,000 hands. Assuming a .1% error rate:
> 26/.0066^2 = 600,000 hands. Play that many hands and your chances of
> being ahead are 84% while chances of being behind are 16%. For a
> negative expectation game, the situation is reversed: 84% chance of
> losing, only 16% chance of winning. For a breakeven game, it's a 50-
50
> proposition, meaning eventually a 50% risk of ruin (someone will
> eventually quit, the bankroll requirement is infinite, either you or
> the house will hit their limit, assuming equal limits the results
are
> 50-50), which many people would consider unacceptably high. The
games
> you play and how you play them determines which distribution you are
> in, your actual results in your distribution is determined
by "luck".
>
> --- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "vpFae" <vpFae@> wrote:
> >
> > Randomness in Video Poker Results
> >
> > http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html
> >
> > <a
href="http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html">
> > http://www.casinogaming.com/columnists/dancer/2008/1104.html</a>
> >
> >
> > ************************************************
> >
> > This link is posted for informational purposes and doesn't
> > constitute an endorsement or approval of the linked article's
> > content by vpFREE. Any discussion of the article must be done
> > in accordance with vpFREE's rules and policies.
> >
> > ************************************************
> >
>

[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]