In a message dated 6/27/2003 9:52:49 AM Central Daylight Time,
harry.porter@verizon.net writes:
I will say that on the day I encounter a loss at a single casino such
that airfare reimbursement would only account for 10% or less of the
loss, I'd be encouraged to ask. However, I haven't had that occasion
yet, flying in from the East Coast.
Why wouldn't a casino base airfare reimbursement on a theoretical loss rather
than an actual loss? For me, the question is purely academic...
Chandler
"...there is always a well-known solution to every human problem--neat,
plausible, and wrong." H. L. Mencken
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