vpFREE2 Forums

Bankroll

Johnathan,

You are correct that there is virtually no chance of losing $10000 in
one day of single line quarter play. I think you are confusing action
with bankroll in the ROR formula. The 10% ROR at 8503 bets models the
following scenario:

You start with 8503 bets committed to a particular play. You never
add or subtract from this bankroll other than wins and losses.
Assuming you have infinite time to play, there is a 10% chance you
will eventually be wiped out and a 90% chance you can play forever.
This type calculation is useful to help you determine what level of
play is appropriate based on you tolerance for financial pain.

This ROR calculation is not very useful in determining how much you
need to survive for a limited session. The risk of ruin before
jackpot is probably a more useful number to determine if you are ready
to tackle a progressive based on your access to cash today.

AJ

I've been playing about three years and consider myself a pretty

good player. I've been reading bankroll questions/answers since I
joined this message board. I've been a computer programmer for 25
years with an extremely high aptitude for math so I'm no idiot.

   
  Something about ROR calculation doesn't seem right. What am I

missing? Does 10% ROR mean you have a 10% chance of losing yor
bankroll? I play between 900-1000 hands per hour. Do the numbers try
to support that if I play 8503 hands in one day, I have a 1 chance in
ten of losing 10 grand playing full pay quarters? That seems rather
unlikely.

   
  I must have played more than 8500 hands in one day 40-50 times in

the past year playing quarters and I think the worat day I ever had
was maybe a $1200 loss. Not even close to $10,000.

...
snip

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Jonathan Bowie <jon21512003@y...> wrote:

As an example, let's say you're going to play double-double bonus
progressives with a double royal (1600 bets) or greater and a 10% risk
of busting is acceptable to you.

Using:
http://wizardofodds.com/videopoker/analyzer/CindyProg.html
The 10% ror bankroll is 8503 bets. ($10,628.75 on 5 coin quarters)

The risk of busting out before hitting a royal is:
0.999354^(stop-loss)

So the risk of losing your bankroll on one progressive play is:
0.999354^(8503)= 0.4%
(It is less if you are competing with other players)

If over the course of several sessions, your bankroll is depleted, you
should probably switch down in denomination, in any case you should
stop to revaluate your current risk.

  Thank you for taking some time to address my questions. I have
been very impressed with your contributions to this group and know
this is a subject in which you have considerable knowledge.

Thanks for the kind words!

  I do recognize the difference between trip vs longterm bankroll

as

you define them. Also, trip bankroll is also part of your long

term

bankroll. In fact, trip bankroll could also equal your longterm
bankroll. That said, I always employ a type of trip bankroll each
day I play. There is a certain point at which I do not want to

lose

anymore money on any particular day - so I stop!
  Frank Scoblete talked about "manageable thrills" in a Casino

City

Times" article. He describe it as a zone between a "thrill zone"

and

a "sweat zone". I personally do not want to play in the "sweat
zone" I also do not want to feel too bad for the near future. So

I

try to temporarily stop playing at a point before losses are a

size

that I will make me "feel bad" for some time in the near future.
This would be my session "sweat zone", or "feel bad zone" It is
easier to return at another time. This is what I call a session
bankroll. If I am on a trip, the trip bankroll might be a number

of

these session bankrolls.

These are all reasonable observations about recreational play. A
pro will see things differently.

  But, in reality, it just seems like I am rationalizing session
bankroll and trip bankroll. As I said in the previous paragraph,

I

only "temporarily" stopped playing. When I play that next hand it
will be part of my longterm bankroll and I assume that

mathematically

does not matter if that next hand is within seconds or months

later.

I am assuming the same game, pay schedule and comp situation at

this

later point in time.

Correct.

  You said the "pro" might play more than a trip bankroll if

playing

in an advantageous situation. It is easy to electronically tap

into

ones longterm bank roll and thus why does a pro even

consider "trip

bankroll".

It is not always easy to get more funds. Bringing enough money on a
trip is always a consideration for a pro. If a pro runs out of
money on a Friday night, it might be either impossible or
prohibitively expensive to get more money until Monday. Even during
banking hours, obtaining more money can be time-consuming and
costly. That's why determining "trip bankroll" is an important
issue for a pro.

Here's a concrete example. Consider a $5 JOB game with 1%
cashback. What kind of longterm bankroll would you need to play
this game with 0.1% RoR? The answer is $272,100. Okay, say a pro
has that kind of bankroll and plans a trip in which he intends to
play about 50 hours of $5 JOB. How much money should the pro bring?

The pro could bring his/her whole bankroll, but there is both risk
and cost in bringing more money than one needs. It turns out
(according to "Dunbar's Risk Analyzer for Video Poker") that $30,000
is enough to keep the RoR under 1% for 50 hours of play (600
hands/hr). That's the Trip Bankroll.

  Again, as in my original post, why is it economically meaningful

to

stop as long as there is longterm backroll remaining?

I think you answered that question yourself earlier. It is not
mathematically meaningful for a recreational player to stop playing
when they intend to play again in the future. The reasons for
stopping are emotional. That does not make those reasons invalid.

It seems a few
members interpreted my question as to my not caring or worrying

about

bankroll. This is not what I meant! I was just trying to
rationalize the mathematics of various bankrolls. I am only

speaking

in terms of mathemaical or financial significance. The next hand
result is as financially significant to the bankroll even if

played

more than two months from the current point in time.

This is all correct. But again, a recreational player has other
goals.

--Dunbar

>
> You raise some interesting questions. I am not going to try to
> answer all of them, but I will make a couple of observations.
>
> First, as you are no doubt aware, there is a difference between

the

> concepts of "Trip bankroll" and "Longterm bankroll". "Trip
bankroll"
> can be thought of as the amount of money you feel you will need

for

a
> given stretch of play. "Trip bankroll" is of interest to both

pros

> and recreational players. For a recreational player, Trip

Bankroll

> is the amount of money they are willing to lose on a single

trip.

> For a pro (or otherwise serious VP player), Trip Bankroll is the
> amount of money that gives them an acceptably small chance of
running
> out of money during a Trip. (The difference is that a Pro would

be

> willing to lose more than his/her Trip Bankroll on a single

trip,

but
> doesn't want to carry excess funds needlessly.)
>
> "Longterm Bankroll" generally refers to the amount of money
necessary
> to achieve a certain RoR when a game is played indefinitely. As
> such, Longterm Bankroll is not of interest to recreational

players

> willing to play VP at a disadvantage.
>
> But Longterm Bankroll is important to Advantage Players like

Jean

> Scott because it tells them the level of play (choice of game,
> denomination, lines) that their bankrolls will support.
>
> To summarize:
> Pros and other Advantage Players care about Longterm Bankroll
> considerations because they want to be able to play VP
indefinitely.
> They care about Trip Bankroll considerations because they need

to

> know how much money to bring on a specific outing.
>
> Recreational players care about Trip Bankroll because it

determines

> the size of game they can play to assure a reasonable amount of
play
> on a trip. Rec players willing to play at a disadvantage

shouldn't

> care much about Longterm Bankroll considerations.
>
> As an Advantage Player myself, I found myself repeatedly in a
> position of needing to know how much Trip Bankroll to bring with

me

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "futrend" <futrend@y...> wrote:

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "dunbar_dra" <h_dunbar@h...> wrote:
> on various trips. It was the difficulty in estimating Trip
Bankroll
> that led me to develop Dunbar's Risk Analyzer for Video Poker.
>
> --Dunbar

That makes a lot more sense. Thanks, Al

AJ <mile_5280@yahoo.com> wrote: Johnathan,

You are correct that there is virtually no chance of losing $10000 in
one day of single line quarter play. I think you are confusing action
with bankroll in the ROR formula. The 10% ROR at 8503 bets models the
following scenario:

You start with 8503 bets committed to a particular play. You never
add or subtract from this bankroll other than wins and losses.
Assuming you have infinite time to play, there is a 10% chance you
will eventually be wiped out and a 90% chance you can play forever.
This type calculation is useful to help you determine what level of
play is appropriate based on you tolerance for financial pain.

This ROR calculation is not very useful in determining how much you
need to survive for a limited session. The risk of ruin before
jackpot is probably a more useful number to determine if you are ready
to tackle a progressive based on your access to cash today.

AJ

I've been playing about three years and consider myself a pretty

good player. I've been reading bankroll questions/answers since I
joined this message board. I've been a computer programmer for 25
years with an extremely high aptitude for math so I'm no idiot.

   
  Something about ROR calculation doesn't seem right. What am I

missing? Does 10% ROR mean you have a 10% chance of losing yor
bankroll? I play between 900-1000 hands per hour. Do the numbers try
to support that if I play 8503 hands in one day, I have a 1 chance in
ten of losing 10 grand playing full pay quarters? That seems rather
unlikely.

   
  I must have played more than 8500 hands in one day 40-50 times in

the past year playing quarters and I think the worat day I ever had
was maybe a $1200 loss. Not even close to $10,000.

...
snip

As an example, let's say you're going to play double-double bonus
progressives with a double royal (1600 bets) or greater and a 10% risk
of busting is acceptable to you.

Using:
http://wizardofodds.com/videopoker/analyzer/CindyProg.html
The 10% ror bankroll is 8503 bets. ($10,628.75 on 5 coin quarters)

The risk of busting out before hitting a royal is:
0.999354^(stop-loss)

So the risk of losing your bankroll on one progressive play is:
0.999354^(8503)= 0.4%
(It is less if you are competing with other players)

If over the course of several sessions, your bankroll is depleted, you
should probably switch down in denomination, in any case you should
stop to revaluate your current risk.

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···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, Jonathan Bowie <jon21512003@y...> wrote:
    
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[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]

No one responded to this message below. Was everyone shocked into silence that I posted something mathematical? Or, was it so dumb you couldn't think of some way to tell me that politely?

<<Am I right in thinking this way about your "steps to the right and left"
example. What if steps to the right stands for profits and steps to the
left stands for losses. I can see that if you are playing at exactly 100%
that it might take more time than you will live, to get back to the original
starting place ("even") if you had to take 10 steps to the left on the first
10 coin tosses. But what if you were given a "bonus" step to the right
periodically, like every so many coin tosses. You would be more apt to get
back to the starting place faster, right? I consider EV "bonus" steps - and
the higher the EV the more bonus steps you would get, and the faster your
trip toward the original EV.

<<First, if you have a big loss, (1) your long
term EV is this loss + EV of the game (in the correct units of course)>>

Despite the limitation of my math skills and understanding, I do understand
this - I think!. So this does not negate the concept I drum on all the
time. In fact it reinforces it. The higher the EV of the game the faster
you get to the long-term. If you have a long severe losing streak at the
first part of your play, it will just take longer than if you start with a
big winning streak.

···

________________________________________
Jean $�ott - http://www.FrugalGambler.biz
  Tax time is coming up - groan! "Tax Help
   for the Frugal Gambler" can answer many
   of your questions!

Jean,

Sorry... missed it the first time.

You are certainly right to look at the "random walk" example to way you do. That was
what I had hoped for when I originially wrote it down. VP is basically a random walk
process, where our bankroll (or stake) is the "position". I will get to your question abou
the bonus step in a moment. First, though, I think it is important to look at the
"units" (and common meanings of) EV.

Assume for a moment that you are playing a game with 101% return, a positive game and
someone asks the questions "What's the EV?"
Probaly the most common answer is : "The EV is 101 %"
But there are other possible answers such as:
"In the long run, expect to earn 1 cent for ever dollar I bet"
Likewise, if you are playing a negative game (Ghast!), with a 99% return and someone asks
the same question, the answer might be the same "Th EV is 99%" or even "My EV is 0! In
the long run I will certainly lose all my money. (Hmm... why am I playing?)"
There is an interesting computation and interpretation of EV hiddin in that second answer.
The player has computed the following:

Long Term Results = (starting Bankroll) * (0.99)^(infinity) = 0

The interpretation of "EV" in this case is something like: "What is MY theoretical EV if I
would play forever".

The point I am trying to make here is that the question "What is the EV?" is not particularly
well posed. It would be better to ask something like: "What is the EV for the game?" or
"What is the EV for that hand ?" or "What is your EV after 100 hands?" and of coarse to
agree upn the units (as in percentage or dollars or bets or units, etc)

Armed with this information, let's take a look at the random walk (drunkards walk)
example again. Let's assume now we are playing a VP-like game. There are only 2
outcomes of for any hand in this game. Either we win $100 (yes!) or lose $1 (ugh). Let's
make this an exactly even game, so that the probabiliy of losing is 100 times greater than
winning. In in idealized world then, if we playing this game for 101 hands, we would win
$100 once, but lose $1 100 times. The net results are = $100 * 1 - $1 * 100 = 0. Hence,
overall, on average, we would neither win or lose. For this game we could write that "EV =
100%" or "EV = 1" and some might write "EV = 0" though the last one could be
misleading.

Now, you sit down and play this game, and amazingly, you win 10 hands in a row. You
now have 10 * $100 = $1000 more in your pocket than when you started, for a huge
return of 10,000% = ($1000/$10 * 100%). But, What is your long term EV relative to you
original bankroll? Well, given what we know about the game, in the long term you expext
to be up exactly $1000, no more and no less. So in dollar units we know the answer: "EV
= $1000". But what is the EV in percentage units? Its a bit more complicated and depends
now on the number of hands played. You won the first $1000 in 10 hands, but you
continue to play now for N more hands. What's your EV afer these N more hands ?

EV (%) = [ ($1000 / $10) * 100% + N * $1 / $1 * 100%] / (N+10)

so

EV (%) = ( 10,000% + N* 100 %) / (N+10)

Notice that as N get very big, N is almost the same as N+10 [ as in 10,000,000 is almost
the same as 10,000,010 ]. In other words,

Ev(%, large N) = 10,000% / N + 100% = 100%

because 1/N ->0 as N becomes large.

What does this result mean? Well, in percetnage units, it says that your long term return is
100%, not more or less. But what it hides is that in the long term, you EV in real units
(dollars) is $1000. Yes, Units do matter in how we think we see the world!

Now lets switch the situation around. Instead of winning $1000 out of the gate, you lose
the first 1000 hands and therefore $1000. Now you have a $1000 loss. Your long term
EV in real units is -$1000, but in percentage units is comes out to 100% again!
Interestingly, you may have noticed, when people are losing they tend to think of long
term results in percentages rather than real dollars( compare "that loss doesn't matter
much, 'cause in the long term the game is still 100%!" to "I hit a RF on the first hand I ever
played, but that was years ago, and since then my percentage return has been dropping
since I haven't been loosing or wining")

Recap: I've been trying to make two points here (1), that EV's are basically additive (with
the weighting) , so long as each is in the same correct units, and (2) that the units of EV
matters (chose the wrong ones, and well eveything appears to change)

Now back to your question:

Your question about given a "bonus step" is a very intresting one. I'm assuming this step
trully is a bonus-- it is entirely free, with not cost at all to you? Assuming that you get
this bonus hand with a known rate (that is, it occurs randomly or deterministicly at a
constant average rate), it can be easily factored into the mathematical description of the
game. First, we can compute what a trully free play (bonus step) is worth for the game.
As you might expect , a free play has a BIG Positive EV.. Now assume that ou get this free
play every say on average nFP hands (nFP could be 100 or 1000 or whataver). The rate
that the free play hand occurs is then 1/nFP = 1 per every NFP hands. The overall effect
on the EV of the game would be:

EV (overall) = (1-1/nFP) * EV (normal game) + EV (Bonus Hand) * (1/ nFP)

Likely, 1/nFP is a small number so = 1 - 1/nFP = (approx.) = 1.

Again,we need that the EV's are additive (with the correct weighting factor). By definition,
the EV of the bonus hand is higher than the EV of the plain game (since we don't pay for
the bonus hand). Therfore, the bonus hand increases our EV. Let's assume that the new
EV( (overall) is positve, EV (overall) = 101%
Or, In real dollars, EV (overall) = 1.01 * N * B , where N is the number of hands and B is
the bet per hand in real dollars
[Yup, in real dollars, our long term, large N EV is infinite. Woo-hoo!]
No assume that you lost the first bunch of hands. Then we are back to the same situation
as before, but this time with a positive game. And that's a good thing.

Using what we learned before, we know that the long term percentage return is still 101%,
so our loss seems to dissappear. Likewise, in real dollars , we have

EV(overall) = 1.01 *N * B + (-$Loss)

But as N gets large, 1.01N *B becomes bigger than $Loss, and so we are happy folks
again. The loss doesn't seem to matter! BTW, the rate is the 1.01 factor. A bigger
number is a faster rate.

Caveat Emptor: All of this "math" depends on N becoming large. It can take a very large N
(with a typicall positive VP game) to come back from a big loss. BUT, we all know that
isn't what generally happens. We tend to come back from a loss quickly (or not at all!),
and we don't have to wait it out for infinite N. That's because of the variance. You see, so
far I have only taked about EV. A more important effect for VP (in the short run. small N
case) is the variance. In fact, it is the variance, that (in the short term) drives what appears
to be our rate of comming back from a big loss, likewise it is the variance that creates that
big loss in the beginning, not the EV itself (even in a negative game).

The point: I like our question, but the precise answer that includes the variance (and the
entire PDF) is comlplicated. Yup, the higher the EV the faster the rate you win, on
average. But, in practice the fluctuations about that average are much larger than that
rate: Variance matters.

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Jean Scott" <QueenofComps@f...> wrote:

No one responded to this message below. >
<<Am I right in thinking this way about your "steps to the right and left"
example. What if steps to the right stands for profits and steps to the
left stands for losses. I can see that if you are playing at exactly 100%
that it might take more time than you will live, to get back to the original
starting place ("even") if you had to take 10 steps to the left on the first
10 coin tosses. But what if you were given a "bonus" step to the right
periodically, like every so many coin tosses. You would be more apt to get
back to the starting place faster, right? I consider EV "bonus" steps - and
the higher the EV the more bonus steps you would get, and the faster your
trip toward the original EV.

<<First, if you have a big loss, (1) your long
term EV is this loss + EV of the game (in the correct units of course)>>

Despite the limitation of my math skills and understanding, I do understand
this - I think!. So this does not negate the concept I drum on all the
time. In fact it reinforces it. The higher the EV of the game the faster
you get to the long-term. If you have a long severe losing streak at the
first part of your play, it will just take longer than if you start with a
big winning streak.

Thanx, cdfsrule, for your VERY thorough math explanation, which I understood - I think!

Therefore, to simplify this, am I correct to say: "The higher the EV of the game the faster
you get to the long-term. If you have a long severe losing streak at the
first part of your play, it will just take longer than if you start with a
big winning streak."

···

________________________________________
Jean $�ott - http://www.FrugalGambler.biz
  Tax time is coming up - groan! "Tax Help
   for the Frugal Gambler" can answer many
   of your questions!

From: "Jean Scott" <QueenofComps@frugalgambler.biz>

Thanx, cdfsrule, for your VERY thorough math explanation, which I
understood - I think!

Therefore, to simplify this, am I correct to say: "The higher the EV of
the game the faster
you get to the long-term. If you have a long severe losing streak at the
first part of your play, it will just take longer than if you start with a
big winning streak."

No, that would not be correct. Unless by "long term" you mean the point at which you went positive and never dipped negative again. That's not what's generally meant by long term.

If you take two games, exactly the same game, slightly positive at by the pay table, but one also has .5% cashback and the other doesn't, it will take just as long playing either game to get into the long term. The game with the cashback will have higher EV, and will be more profitable (even during losing streaks) than the other game, but profitability doesn't equal long term. Long term is usually used to mean the point when the return you realize is likely to be within some small delta of the expectation of the play. You can have games where you are likely to be very profitable long before you hit the long term, and you can have profitable games where even in the long term there is a significant chance you are at a negative return. This is because if your EV on the game is exctremely small, then it can be comparable to how far off from expectation you could be in the long term.

Long term play does not necessarily equal profitable play, you have to look at the entire characteristics of the game you are talking about.

···

_________________________________________________________________
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Thanx, cdfsrule, for your VERY thorough math explanation, which I
understood - I think!

Therefore, to simplify this, am I correct to say: "The higher

the EV of the game the faster you get to the long-term.<<<

I don't think so.

Here's my reasoning, short and simple, I hope.

The events that have the most impact on how quickly you reach
the "long term" are the rare events not the common ones. In video
poker, these are the royal flushes, and since the royal flush period
is approximately 40,000 for most games, regardless of E.V., the long
term is reached at about the same speed for all games.

To counter your hypothesis consider the following hypothetical.

You could design a video poker game with very high expected value,
which would take a really long time to reach the the long term.
Consider a game where the Big Pay-Off required you to get back to
back royal flushes!. The Big Pay-Off would be HUGE but boy would
would you have to wait along time for the long-term!

"If you have a long severe losing streak at the first part of your

play, it will just take longer than if you start with a big winning
streak."<<<

How you start, winning or losing, is irrelevant to the long-term,
that's why it is called the long-term, the streaks even out.

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Jean Scott" <QueenofComps@f...> wrote:

All depends how you define "long term".

If you define long term as the point at which you have at least an 84%
chance of winning, that is N0, which equals (approximately)
variance/(er-1+cashback)^2 hands. (260,000 hands for FPDW +0.25%cb)

If you define long term as the point at which a standard deviation is
+/- 10% of the average return, that is 100 times N0.

The first definition is probably more useful.

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "vp_mavin" <vp_mavin@y...> wrote:

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Jean Scott" <QueenofComps@f...> wrote:
>
> Thanx, cdfsrule, for your VERY thorough math explanation, which I
> understood - I think!
>
>>> Therefore, to simplify this, am I correct to say: "The higher
the EV of the game the faster you get to the long-term.<<<

I don't think so.

Here's my reasoning, short and simple, I hope.

The events that have the most impact on how quickly you reach
the "long term" are the rare events not the common ones. In video
poker, these are the royal flushes, and since the royal flush period
is approximately 40,000 for most games, regardless of E.V., the long
term is reached at about the same speed for all games.

Long term is usually used to mean the point when the return you
realize is likely to be within some small delta of the expectation

of the

play.

For example, the long term could be defined as the point where the
delta of one standard deviation is equal to the average return:

average return = (er-1+cb) x hands
standard deviation = sqrt(variance x hands)
(er-1+cb) x hands = sqrt(variance x hands)
(er-1+cb)^2 x hands^2 = variance x hands
hands=variance/(er-1+cb)^2

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Part Timer" <PartTimeVP@h...> wrote:

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote

For example, the long term could be defined as the point where the
delta of one standard deviation is equal to the average return:

average return = (er-1+cb) x hands
standard deviation = sqrt(variance x hands)
(er-1+cb) x hands = sqrt(variance x hands)
(er-1+cb)^2 x hands^2 = variance x hands
hands=variance/(er-1+cb)^2

At the risk of being entirely redundent (in light of what's been
stated previously) I want to expand upon iggy's post.

Very early on, upon joining this board, iggy introduced a concept
which he references in shorthand as "N0". It's a reference to a "long
term" concept that doesn't have ER/EV as it's primary focus, but
instead examines the length of play required before you have strong
confidence of positive (profitable) results.

This is a rather liberating perspective on play for, speaking for
myself at least, I can deal with a certain degree of uncertainty with
respect to closely achieving some given ER in my play -- but I have a
critical concern when it comes to the risk of loss. In other words,
if I play with a 1% positive return expectation, I'll deal just fine
if I only manage an actual return of 0.5%. But, where I really look
for some comfort is that I'm not exposed to undue loss risk.

···

------------

"NO" is the number of hands for a game after which you have a strong
expectation of positive results - namely where a shortfall from ER in
results of no more than one "standard deviation" (SD) represents no
worse than a break-even result.

Without dwelling on the calculation of SD, the significance is that
for a given ER, the range of possible outcomes that are +/- 1 SD
represent 68% of all likely results. For example, if a game has an ER
of 100.5% and, after x hands played, the standard deviation is 1%,
then 68% of likely outcomes will fall between 99.5% and 101.5%. As
you play more hands, results are expected to more closely approximate
the ER, and the standard deviation decreases.

------------

Ok, cutting to the chase, the significance of all this is that for a
game such as FPDW, there is a given number of hands played for which
the value of 1 SD equals the positive return of the game -- in other
words, after that number of hands, the range of outcomes that lie
within 1 SD of the game ER all lie in positive territory, i.e. you
have a strong probability of coming away a winner. For FPDW, this
would represent the point in play where 1 SD = .76% and 68% of results
will fall between 100.76% +/- .76%.

With 68% of expected results falling within 1 SD of the ER, 32% of
results outside of that range. Half of that 32% will represent
results that are even stronger than that range -- at 1 SD, when you
reach "N0" hands of play, you only have a 16% expectation of suffering
a loss in your play (and a considerably smaller expectation of a
"signfiicant" loss).

------------

What's really revealing here comes when you listen to the naysayers
who speak of the millions and millions of hands before which you
achieve long term results (i.e. expect to closely approach game ER).
If you set your sights on being satisfied, at minimum, with positive
results, the scope of that "long term" shrinks tremendously --
particularly if you're talking about a game with a strong return and
yet modest variance.

The most notable example for LV denizens is FPDW -- and it's why there
are numerous locals who've enjoyed steady profitable play with only a
moderate downside, provided that they're sufficiently bankrolled to
survive the short-term swings.

------------

The last equation provided by iggy in the quote above defines how to
determine just how many hands it takes to reach this point in play.
What you'll find is that the number of hands for FPDW is quite
tangible for most reasonably active players. Apply the equation to a
thinly positive and more volatile game such as 10/7 DB, with modest
cb, and the number of hands required is greater by magnitudes. It
highlights the importance of game selection on "survivability".

Hope I didn't overly belabor this -- I find that iggy's introduced one
of the most valuable concepts expressed here to date but figure that
others, like myself, could use a little assist in filling in some details.

- Harry

Thank you Harry.

And just to be accurate, I thought it was Dumbar who coined the term
"N0" but according to this page:
http://www.bjmath.com/bjmath/refer/N0.htm
Brett Harris did.
"The functional n0[b] is called the Long Run Index, because it is
equal to the number of
rounds that must be played, with a fixed betting spread, such that the
accumulated expectation
equals the accumulated standard deviation. As such, it is a measure of
how many rounds must
be played to overcome a negative fluctuation of one standard deviation
with such a fixed
spread."
" The historical origin of N0[B] resulted from the observation that if
a player is unlucky enough to be losing at Q standard deviation below
expectation, then the mean profit as a function of rounds (N) is given by

   P(N) = EV[B] * N - Q * SD[B] * Sqrt(N) (65)

where SD[B]=Sqrt(VAR[B]). This function initially drops below zero,
and does not reach zero again until

     N = Q^2 * VAR[B]/(EV[B])^2 = Q^2 * N0[B] . (66)

Hence, N0[B] can be seen as the number of rounds required to overcome
one standard deviation of 'bad luck'. This is the origin of the
interpretation
of N0[B] as a number of rounds, and can be seen as an index which measures
how long the 'long run' is for a particular game. "

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:

Thank you Harry.

No problem (I take it that I didn't slaughter the concepts too badly :wink:

And just to be accurate, I thought it was Dumbar who coined the term
"N0" ...

I expect this isn't intended to cast the aspersion on DuNbar that
might be inferred at first glance :wink: -- or is something Freudian at
play here?

- H.

nightoftheiguana2000 wrote:
>
> Thank you Harry.

No problem (I take it that I didn't slaughter the concepts too badly :wink:

On the contrary I think you worded things quite well.

> And just to be accurate, I thought it was Dumbar who coined the term
> "N0" ...

I expect this isn't intended to cast the aspersion on DuNbar that
might be inferred at first glance :wink: -- or is something Freudian at
play here?

Oops, just an innocent typo. I have the highest respect for Dunbar and
his work. Just wanted to make clear that I haven't "invented" anything
here, I'm merely repeating the works of the giants whose shoulders we
stand on. So a big shout out to Pascal and the Monte Carlo gang.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blaise_Pascal

···

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Harry Porter" <harry.porter@v...> wrote:

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Harry Porter" <harry.porter@v...> >
Hope I didn't overly belabor this -- I find that iggy's introduced one

of the most valuable concepts expressed here to date but figure that
others, like myself, could use a little assist in filling in some

details.

- Harry

Thanks Harry, I now think I understand

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000"
<nightoftheiguana2000@y...> wrote:

Thank you Harry.

And just to be accurate, I thought it was Dumbar who coined the

term

"N0" but according to this page:
http://www.bjmath.com/bjmath/refer/N0.htm
Brett Harris did.

It was indeed Brett Harris who cointed the term "NO".

The only term I have coined is something I called "Nhell". (It
looks better with subscripts!) Nhell is the point at which finding
yourself a single standard deviation below EV would hurt the most.
In other words, it is the lowest point of EV - SD.

It turns out that Nhell = NO/4.

Here is the derivation of Nhell = NO/4 (If you are math-phobic, you
might want to skip to the final 2 paragraphs.)

Let EV(N), SD(N), and Var(N) be the expected value, standard
deviation, and variance after N hands. A result that is 1 standard
deviation below expectation after N hands will be:

Result = EV(N) - SD(N)

note that SD(N) = SQRT(Var(N))
SD(N) = SQRT(N * Var(1))
SD(N) = SQRT(N * SD(1)^2)
SD(N) = SQRT(N) * SD(1)
substituting for SD(N) in the first equation, we get

Result = EV(N) - SQRT(N)*SD(1)

Noting that EV(N) = N*EV(1), we get

Result = N*EV(1) - SQRT(N)*SD(1)

To get the lowest point, we set the derivative (with respect to "N")
to zero and solve for N:

0 = EV(1) - (1/2) * SD(1) * N ^ (-1/2)

0 = EV(1) - (1/2 * SD(1))/SQRT(N)

SQRT(N) = (1/2) SD(1)/EV(1)

N = (1/4) * (SD(1)/EV(1))^2 = 1/4 * NO

This "N" I've called "Nhell". It's the most negative point that can
be reached by a 1-standard deviation negative swing from expectation
(EV). However, it takes longer than NO/4 hands to reach the lowest
point of a TWO standard deviation negative fluctuation. In fact, it
takes exactly NO hands to reach that point.

I think it's somewhat interesting that NO, sometimes used to define
the "longterm", is also the number of plays at which a 2-standard
deviation from expectation would do the most damage to your
bankroll.

--Dunbar

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "nightoftheiguana2000" > All depends
how you define "long term".

If you define long term as the point at which you have at least an

84%

chance of winning, that is N0, which equals (approximately)
variance/(er-1+cashback)^2 hands. (260,000 hands for FPDW +0.25%cb)

If you define long term as the point at which a standard deviation is
+/- 10% of the average return, that is 100 times N0.

The first definition is probably more useful.

You have probably covered this before, but could you elaborate as to
why this (NO) is a better definition of long term.

Also in the second statement( 10% if average return) does that mean
+/- 10% of ER = one SD? or 10% of coin in or what? Also what is
unique about +/- 10% of average return?

Could it not be any predetermined value, acceptable to the person
doing the defining ?

I wrote: <<Therefore, to simplify this, am I correct to say: "The higher the EV of
the game the faster
you get to the long-term. If you have a long severe losing streak at the
first part of your play, it will just take longer than if you start with a
big winning streak.">>

Almost sorry I posted this!!! :slight_smile: Considering the VERY complicated posts it has spawned. I'm not saying this is an unimportant thread, it isn't. But it will take a lot of studying on my part to try to boil these numbers down to a non-math general explanation. I don't have time right now to study it - knee-deep in tax business.

However, I think the problem with my summary above was the first sentence. I know it is not just a matter of EV but of variance too. I guess I was thinking of 2 games with similar variance when I wrote that or the same game with two different amounts of added benefits. For example 10/7 DB, with .3% benefits or with .9 benefits (like promotions, i.e., CoD; or bonus slot club points, etc.) In those cases, my second sentence would be true. Although when you have added benefits, these are always a plus figure and help you get to the long term a little faster than if your total EV is only from the game itself.

So, in summary, that second sentence would be more generally the case if I had said something in the first sentence about looking at bankroll figures that took into consideration both EV and variance.

···

________________________________________
Jean $�ott - http://www.FrugalGambler.biz
  Tax time is coming up - groan! "Tax Help
   for the Frugal Gambler" can answer many
   of your questions!

Jean Scott wrote:

I wrote: <<Therefore, to simplify this, am I correct to say: "The
higher the EV of the game the faster you get to the long-term. If
you have a long severe losing streak at the first part of your play,
it will just take longer than if you start with a big winning
streak.">>

Almost sorry I posted this!!! :slight_smile: Considering the VERY complicated
posts it has spawned ... I'm not saying this is an unimportant
thread, it isn't. But it will take a lot of studying on my part to
try to boil these numbers down to a non-math general explanation.

I'm hesitant to insert myself into this discussion further, for fear
that what I'll add will prove to be more blather than illuminating.

It's not surprising that your post set off a thread that explores a
few avenues since the scope of what you address doesn't entail a
single variable nor a single concept. All the same, the essence that
you're after can feasibly be addressed in simple terms without delving
into all the detail.

One difficulty to be confronted in your post is the reference to the
"long term". That's a concept that can be interpreted in a number of
ways, depending upon the context.

If it's interpreted in the most common fashion, the time over which
you have confidence of being within a given tolerance of game ER in
your actual play results, then for the most part the first segment of
your statement is incorrect. Comparing two games (assuming similar
variance) a lower ER game will move you to positive territory more
slowly than the higher ER game, but you've got further to go in order
to get back on track with the higher ER game -- without sweating
minutiae, the two kinda cancel each other out and neither will offer
much of an advantage in getting back to ER in your overall results.

But there's another direction one might go with your statement --
which game will get you back on a positive track sooner. That's a bit
of a lead-in to "N0". A game with a smaller NO (typically a high
return, low variance game) presents you with greater assurance
prospectively that any setbacks in play will be compensated by the
positive aspect of the game and you have greater reliability of
positive results in your play over time.

But, (I believe) it was cdfrule who perhaps most constructively
answered your question. In the short-term we expect to suffer losses
as a consequence of variance. The factor that will be the more
important in reversing that setback is game variance.

Quite simply, if you suffer a large setback due to extended adverse
play in a low variance game such as Jacks (and let's assume cb/bonus
of 1% to make it a positive game), you anticipate a long haul to get
back "on track". On the other hand, if you suffer a similar set back
in DB (and now assume cb to make the game inferior to the Jacks
scenario above), despite the lower adjusted ER you have much strong
probability of covering the original loss. This is where he notes
that variance can be an ally (although it was in the context of a
"losing" game, I believe).

I'm writing off the cuff here and taking some liberties with what's
been written, but I'm hoping that I'm on track with these statements
and, also, that they go some distance in giving you what you may be
looking for here.

It would appear that you were looking for formulate some statement
that might discuss the advantage of higher ER play when it comes to
short-term setbacks. In that vein, I've suggested that the concept of
"NO" has the most to offer. Play a relatively high return and low
return game and you have the greatest assurance of recovery from
short-term losses. FPDW stands out as the best ideal of that we have.

- Harry

--- In vpFREE@yahoogroups.com, "Jean Scott" <QueenofComps@f...>
wrote:

Almost sorry I posted this!!! :slight_smile: Considering the VERY

complicated posts it

has spawned. I'm not saying this is an unimportant thread, it

isn't.

Don't be sorry, this is just as important as the best 99cent shrimp
cocktail. I ask a lot of questions to help clarify both for
myself and for what I perceive are others that are not as
mathematically inclined as some of the posters. Sometimes the
right answer is not clear without simplification.

However, I think the problem with my summary above was the first

sentence.

I know it is not just a matter of EV but of variance too. I

guess I was

thinking of 2 games with similar variance when I wrote that or the

same game

with two different amounts of added benefits. For example 10/7

DB, with

.3% benefits or with .9 benefits (like promotions, i.e., CoD; or

bonus slot

club points, etc.) In those cases, my second sentence would be

true.

Although when you have added benefits, these are always a plus

figure and

help you get to the long term a little faster than if your total

EV is only

from the game itself.

If I understand correctly, if your definition of long term is being
positive I think I agree. However, one can still reach the long
term on a negative game (heaven forbid on this forum). NO is one
way to look at it. Personally I prefer to look at it when my
results are within some predetermined value of the potential ER,
regardless if it is positive or negative.

I am still waiting for someone to explain why NO is preferred. But
if that is their preference, then that is one way of looking at it.
I just do not understand why it is the preferred way.

So summarizing, If you definition of long term is when you will go
positive, then play high ER, low variance, and lots of CB and
promotions. Nothing new there.